ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A client has experienced a pontine stroke which has resulted in severe hemiparesis. What priority assessment should the nurse perform prior to allowing the client to eat or drink from the food tray?
- A. Evaluate the client's gag reflex.
- B. Assess the client's bowel sounds.
- C. Check the client's pupil reaction.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's gag reflex. When a client has experienced a stroke resulting in severe hemiparesis, assessing the gag reflex is crucial before allowing them to eat or drink. This assessment helps prevent aspiration, a serious complication that can occur due to impaired swallowing ability. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice B), pupil reaction (Choice C), or heart rate (Choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where the risk of aspiration is higher.
2. A nurse working in a busy orthopedic clinic is asked to perform the Tinel sign on a client having problems in her hand/wrist. In order to test Tinel sign, the nurse should give the client which direction?
- A. Stand tall, arms at your side, shut your eyes; place the tip of your index finger to your nose.
- B. Hold your wrist in complete flexion, keep it in this position for 60 seconds. How does your hand feel after placing it in a neutral position?
- C. I'm going to tap (percuss) over the median nerve in your wrist; tell me what sensation you feel while I am doing this. Does the sensation stay in the wrist or go anywhere else?
- D. I'm going to tap this tuning fork; place it on the side of your thumb, then tell me what you are feeling in your hand and wrist.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Tinel sign involves percussing over the median nerve in the wrist to test for carpal tunnel syndrome. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different action unrelated to the Tinel sign. Choice B is also incorrect as it involves holding the wrist in flexion, which is not part of the Tinel sign assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions using a tuning fork on the thumb, which is not the correct technique for assessing the Tinel sign.
3. A young man has received a diagnosis of androgen deficiency and has been prescribed testosterone. At clinic follow-up appointments, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?
- A. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones
- B. Weight and measurement of blood pressure
- C. Hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement
- D. Deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient receiving testosterone therapy for androgen deficiency, monitoring weight and blood pressure is crucial. Testosterone therapy can lead to weight gain and hypertension, making regular assessments of these parameters important to detect and manage any adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for a patient on testosterone therapy. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones, hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement, and deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing are not directly related to the common side effects or monitoring requirements of testosterone therapy.
4. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education about the use of this medication?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes, so the patient should be prepared for this side effect.
- C. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so the patient should ensure adequate calcium intake.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so the patient should monitor their diet and exercise regularly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the affected limb, and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen but not a critical concern like venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with a decreased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because while weight gain can occur with tamoxifen, it is not as crucial to educate the patient about as the risk of venous thromboembolism.
5. Following a spinal cord injury suffered in a motor vehicle accident, a 22-year-old male has lost fine motor function of his finger and thumb, but is still able to perform gross motor movements of his hand and arm. Which component of his 'white matter' has most likely been damaged?
- A. The inner layer (archilayer)
- B. The middle layer (paleolayer)
- C. The outer layer (neolayer)
- D. The reticular formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The outer layer (neolayer). The white matter of the spinal cord consists of three layers: the outer layer (neolayer), the middle layer (paleolayer), and the inner layer (archilayer). Damage to the outer layer (neolayer) is likely to affect fine motor skills, explaining the loss of fine motor function in the finger and thumb while gross motor movements remain intact. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the specific layer of the white matter that is typically associated with fine motor control.
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