a male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride proscar for benign prostatic hyperplasia bph what should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Exam

1. A male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse explain about this risk?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. Studies have demonstrated that finasteride can reduce the incidence of prostate cancer. However, it is still recommended to have regular screening to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride has shown to have a positive effect on reducing prostate cancer risk. Choice C is inaccurate because finasteride decreases, not increases, the risk of prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as regular screening is still necessary despite the risk reduction associated with finasteride.

2. A patient is starting on finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this expected time frame to manage expectations. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps in managing symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as one of the side effects of finasteride is decreased hair growth. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride may cause a decrease in libido as a side effect.

3. A patient with a complex medical history is considering the use of oral contraceptives. The nurse should be aware that many antibiotics and antiseizure medications cause what effect when combined with oral contraceptives?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of pregnancy. Certain antibiotics and anticonvulsants can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing liver enzymes that metabolize the hormones more quickly. This interaction can lead to a decreased contraceptive effect, thereby increasing the risk of pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the effect of antibiotics and antiseizure medications on oral contraceptives.

4. Which of the following might result from severe diarrhea?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Metabolic acidosis. Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis because the loss of bicarbonate ions in the stool results in an overall decrease in the body's bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, usually due to inadequate alveolar ventilation. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, usually caused by conditions like vomiting. Respiratory alkalosis (choice C) is a condition of low blood carbon dioxide levels and high pH, often due to hyperventilation.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.

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