ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse explain about this risk?
- A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- B. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screening is important.
- D. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. Studies have demonstrated that finasteride can reduce the incidence of prostate cancer. However, it is still recommended to have regular screening to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride has shown to have a positive effect on reducing prostate cancer risk. Choice C is inaccurate because finasteride decreases, not increases, the risk of prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as regular screening is still necessary despite the risk reduction associated with finasteride.
2. A patient is prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes. What is the expected outcome of this medication?
- A. Decreased testosterone production
- B. Decreased libido
- C. Decreased viral shedding
- D. Decreased bacterial replication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The expected outcome of acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes is decreased viral shedding. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby reducing viral shedding and helping to control outbreaks. Choice A, decreased testosterone production, and Choice B, decreased libido, are unrelated outcomes of acyclovir treatment for genital herpes. Choice D, decreased bacterial replication, is also incorrect as acyclovir specifically targets viruses and does not affect bacterial replication.
3. A public health nurse is responsible for the administration of numerous immunizations. Which of the following guidelines regarding anaphylaxis should the nurse adhere to?
- A. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 1 minute after administration.
- B. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 5 minutes after administration.
- C. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.
- D. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 90 minutes after administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.' This is because anaphylaxis can occur within minutes of administration of an immunization. By observing the patient for 30 minutes, the nurse can promptly identify and manage any signs of anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they suggest shorter or longer observation periods, which may not be sufficient to detect and respond to anaphylaxis in a timely manner.
4. An oncology nurse is providing care for an adult patient who is currently immunocompromised. The nurse is aware of the physiology involved in hematopoiesis and immune function, including the salient role of cytokines. What is the primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis?
- A. Cytokines perform phagocytosis in response to bacterial and protozoal infections.
- B. Cytokines perform a regulatory role in the development of diverse blood cells.
- C. Cytokines play a significant role in the formation of all blood cells.
- D. Cytokines are produced in response to the presence of antibodies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis is to perform a regulatory function in the development of diverse blood cells. Cytokines act as signaling molecules that regulate the immune response and hematopoiesis. Choice A is incorrect because cytokines do not perform phagocytosis; they regulate immune responses. Choice C is incorrect because while cytokines are involved in the formation of some blood cells, they are not considered the basic 'building blocks' of all blood cells. Choice D is incorrect because cytokines are not formed in response to antibodies, but rather play a role in the immune response to various stimuli.
5. Following the administration of her annual influenza vaccination, a health care worker remains at the clinic for observation due to pain at the injection site. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. ASA
- B. Acetaminophen
- C. Meperidine (Demerol)
- D. Heat application
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for pain at the injection site after an influenza vaccination is Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is a suitable choice for managing mild to moderate pain and fever commonly associated with vaccinations. Choice A, ASA (aspirin), is not recommended due to the risk of Reye's syndrome in children and teenagers following viral illnesses. Choice C, Meperidine (Demerol), is a potent opioid analgesic and is not typically indicated for mild pain relief. Choice D, heat application, is not the standard recommendation for pain at an injection site and may not provide adequate relief.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access