Nursing Elites

1. A male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screening is important.
• D. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. Studies have demonstrated that finasteride can reduce the incidence of prostate cancer. However, it is still recommended to have regular screening to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride has shown to have a positive effect on reducing prostate cancer risk. Choice C is inaccurate because finasteride decreases, not increases, the risk of prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as regular screening is still necessary despite the risk reduction associated with finasteride.

2. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
• D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

3. In gout, a man has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:

• A. asymptomatic.
• B. acute flare.
• C. the intercritical period.
• D. chronic gout.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The man's presentation of large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows is indicative of tophi formation, which is characteristic of chronic gout. Tophi are deposits of uric acid crystals that can develop over time in untreated or poorly managed gout. During the chronic phase of gout, tophi can form in joints, soft tissues, and organs. Asymptomatic refers to a phase where there are no symptoms present. Acute flare is characterized by sudden and severe joint pain and inflammation. The intercritical period is the time between gout attacks when the patient is symptom-free.

4. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?

• A. Autoimmune
• B. Anaphylaxis
• C. Alloimmune
• D. Allergic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, an alloimmune reaction occurs. In this situation, the mother's immune system recognizes the fetus as foreign due to differences in antigens, leading to an immune response against the fetus. Choice A, 'Autoimmune,' is incorrect because it refers to the immune system mistakenly attacking the body's own cells and tissues. Choice B, 'Anaphylaxis,' is not the correct answer as it is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. Choice D, 'Allergic,' is also incorrect as it refers to an immune response triggered by allergens, not antigens expressed by the fetus.

5. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:

• A. Leukemia
• B. Sideroblastic anemia
• C. Hemosiderosis
• D. Polycythemia vera

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.

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