ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse explain about this risk?
- A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- B. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screening is important.
- D. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. Studies have demonstrated that finasteride can reduce the incidence of prostate cancer. However, it is still recommended to have regular screening to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride has shown to have a positive effect on reducing prostate cancer risk. Choice C is inaccurate because finasteride decreases, not increases, the risk of prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as regular screening is still necessary despite the risk reduction associated with finasteride.
2. Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the following exudates is composed of a large accumulation of leukocytes?
- A. Serous
- B. Purulent
- C. Fibrinous
- D. Hemorrhagic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Purulent. Purulent exudates, or pus, consist primarily of leukocytes and dead cells, indicating a bacterial infection. Serous exudates contain a thin, watery fluid with few leukocytes. Fibrinous exudates are rich in fibrin and are commonly seen in severe inflammation. Hemorrhagic exudates contain red blood cells due to blood vessel damage.
3. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?
- A. Destruction of proteoglycans
- B. Underexcretion of uric acid
- C. Overexcretion of uric acid
- D. Increased absorption of uric acid
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. Gouty arthritis is primarily caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to its accumulation in joints and subsequent crystallization. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of gout. Destruction of proteoglycans, overexcretion of uric acid, and increased absorption of uric acid are not primary causes of gouty arthritis.
4. A client with a pneumothorax is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation levels
- C. Improved breath sounds on the affected side
- D. Increased dyspnea and chest pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax receiving oxygen therapy, improved breath sounds on the affected side would indicate effective treatment. This finding suggests that the collapsed lung is re-expanding, allowing air to flow more freely in and out of the affected area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Increased respiratory rate, decreased oxygen saturation levels, and increased dyspnea and chest pain are signs of ineffective treatment or worsening of the condition in a client with a pneumothorax.
5. Muscular dystrophy is a result of an abnormality of the muscle protein:
- A. glycoprotein
- B. dystrophin
- C. troponin
- D. actinomyosin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscular dystrophy is primarily caused by mutations in the gene that provides instructions for making the protein dystrophin. Dystrophin plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure of muscle fibers. Glycoprotein is a general term for proteins with sugar molecules attached, not specifically related to muscular dystrophy. Troponin is a protein involved in muscle contraction regulation, and actinomyosin is not a specific muscle protein but a complex formed during muscle contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is dystrophin.
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