Nursing Elites

1. A male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screening is important.
• D. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. Studies have demonstrated that finasteride can reduce the incidence of prostate cancer. However, it is still recommended to have regular screening to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride has shown to have a positive effect on reducing prostate cancer risk. Choice C is inaccurate because finasteride decreases, not increases, the risk of prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as regular screening is still necessary despite the risk reduction associated with finasteride.

2. What condition can be caused by an excessive amount of growth hormone released by the pituitary gland in childhood?

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Gigantism
• C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
• D. Dwarfism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gigantism is the correct answer. It is a condition caused by excessive growth hormone release before the epiphyseal plates close, leading to abnormal growth. Acromegaly (choice A) is caused by excess growth hormone after the epiphyseal plates close, resulting in enlargement of bones and tissues. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (choice C) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Dwarfism (choice D) is a condition characterized by significantly below-average height.

3. When does pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsen?

• A. with rest because blood flow decreases.
• B. with elevation of the extremity because blood is diverted away.
• C. when the leg is in a dependent position because blood pools.
• D. when the leg is touched or massaged because cytokines are released.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsens with elevation of the extremity because blood is diverted away from the affected area, leading to decreased perfusion and exacerbation of symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because resting, dependent position, and touch/massage do not typically worsen the pain associated with peripheral artery disease.

4. When taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis, what important instruction should the nurse provide about taking this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals.
• C. Discontinuing medroxyprogesterone should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily rather than weekly for the treatment of endometriosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When taking medroxyprogesterone acetate for endometriosis, it is essential to maintain consistent hormone levels by taking the medication at the same time each day. This consistency helps optimize the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals, not necessarily with food. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful and may not address side effects appropriately. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily to manage endometriosis symptoms, not weekly, to ensure continuous therapy and symptom control.

5. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:

• A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
• B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
• C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
• D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.

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