a patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and will soon begin first line drug treatment how will rifampin most likely be administered to this pat
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.

2. A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An attenuated antigen used in a vaccine is alive but less infectious, aiming to stimulate an immune response. Choice B is incorrect because an attenuated antigen is not highly infectious. Choice C is incorrect as the antigen is intentionally altered to be less infectious. Choice D is incorrect as an attenuated antigen is not infectious.

3. A nurse is teaching a class about immune deficiencies, and a person from the audience asks which cells are affected by severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome, and the nurse answers:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: B and T cell deficits. Severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome affects both B and T cells, leading to a severe impairment in the immune system's ability to fight infections. Choice A (B cell deficits) is incorrect because SCID affects not only B cells but also T cells. Choice B (T cell deficits) is incorrect as SCID is characterized by deficits in both B and T cells. Choice C (Complement deficits) is incorrect as SCID primarily involves B and T cell deficiencies rather than complement deficiencies.

4. A client presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath. The client's ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client presenting with chest pain, shortness of breath, and ST-segment elevation on ECG, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography. This procedure is crucial in diagnosing and treating acute myocardial infarction promptly. Administering aspirin (Choice A) is important but not the priority over emergent coronary angiography. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice C) is supportive but does not address the underlying cause of the ST-segment elevation. Initiating CPR (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario as the client is stable and conscious.

5. A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is significantly higher in the right arm than in the left arm. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is characterized by sudden, severe chest pain that can radiate to the back. The discrepancy in blood pressure between the arms (higher in the right arm) is known as a 'pulse deficit' and is a classic finding in aortic dissection. This condition involves a tear in the inner layer of the aorta, leading to the abnormal flow of blood within the aortic wall. Acute myocardial infarction (choice A) presents with chest pain but typically does not cause discrepancies in blood pressure between arms. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) usually presents with chest pain and difficulty breathing but does not cause unequal blood pressures in the arms. Pericarditis (choice D) can cause chest pain exacerbated by breathing or lying down, but it does not typically lead to differences in blood pressure between arms.

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