a 30 year old male was diagnosed with hiv which of the following treatments would be most effective
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ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.

2. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.

3. A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, “I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.

4. A patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following agents will assist in raising the patient's hemoglobin levels?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell production and is commonly used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure. By increasing red blood cell production, epoetin alfa helps raise hemoglobin levels in these patients. Pentoxifylline (Choice B) is not indicated for raising hemoglobin levels in chronic renal failure patients; it is a peripheral vasodilator used to improve blood flow. Estazolam (Choice C) is a benzodiazepine used for treating insomnia and has no role in raising hemoglobin levels. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide (Choice D) is a cough suppressant and is not used to raise hemoglobin levels in patients with chronic renal failure.

5. What are the characteristics of the inflammatory process?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain, redness. Inflammation is characterized by pain and redness as part of the body's response to tissue injury. Choice A, loss of function and coolness, are not primary characteristics of inflammation. Choice C, heat and pallor, may be present in some cases but are not as consistently associated with inflammation as pain and redness. Choice D, swelling and pallor, includes swelling which is common in inflammation but pallor is not a typical characteristic.

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