a 30 year old male was diagnosed with hiv which of the following treatments would be most effective
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ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.

2. Which of the following hormones helps to raise the blood sugar level to help maintain homeostasis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Glucagon. Glucagon helps raise blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, thus aiding in maintaining homeostasis. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), choice A, functions in regulating water balance in the body, not blood sugar levels. Insulin, choice B, lowers blood sugar levels by facilitating glucose uptake by cells. Thyroxine, choice D, is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that regulates metabolism and has no direct effect on blood sugar levels.

3. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.

4. A patient with a history of breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What critical information should the nurse include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur.

5. How can a colony-stimulating factor affect the patient's erythrocyte count?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Colony-stimulating factors are substances that stimulate the production of blood cells in the bone marrow. Erythrocytes are red blood cells, so a colony-stimulating factor would specifically stimulate the growth of red blood cells, leading to an increase in the patient's erythrocyte count. Choice B is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not suppress T-cell production. Choice C is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not stimulate antibody production; they primarily affect the production of blood cells.

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