Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a client with damage to the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. What should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

• A. Assistance with ambulation
• B. Regular hearing tests
• C. Monitoring for nausea
• D. Vision assessments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Damage to the vestibular area affects balance and may cause nausea. Therefore, the nurse should include assistance with ambulation in the care plan to help the client maintain stability while walking. Regular hearing tests (choice B) are not directly related to damage in the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. While nausea (choice C) may occur due to vestibular damage, monitoring for it alone is not as essential as providing assistance with ambulation. Vision assessments (choice D) are important for assessing visual function but are not the priority when dealing with vestibular issues.

2. What does a client's symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion indicate?

• A. Increased intracranial pressure
• B. Lower extremity compartment syndrome
• C. Consuming too much food at once
• D. Improved kidney function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion are indicative of increased intracranial pressure. These symptoms suggest a serious condition that can occur after head trauma, requiring immediate medical attention. Lower extremity compartment syndrome presents with symptoms related to pressure build-up in the muscles of the legs, not the head. Consuming too much food at once does not manifest with these neurological symptoms. Improved kidney function would not present with symptoms such as headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness.

3. In a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax), what is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Increased hair growth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Tamsulosin is prescribed for patients with BPH to relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation helps in relieving the symptoms of BPH, such as decreased urinary flow, frequent urination, and urgency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not increase urinary output but rather improves the flow of urine by relaxing the muscles. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin is not primarily used for reducing blood pressure. Choice D is also incorrect as tamsulosin does not promote increased hair growth.

4. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• B. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• C. Increased risk of bone fractures
• D. Increased risk of breast cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of liver dysfunction. Testosterone therapy can lead to liver dysfunction, including cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis. This adverse effect necessitates monitoring of liver function tests during testosterone therapy. Choice B, increased risk of prostate cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy does not cause prostate cancer but is contraindicated in patients with known or suspected prostate cancer. Choice C, increased risk of bone fractures, is incorrect as testosterone therapy is actually associated with an increase in bone mineral density, reducing the risk of fractures. Choice D, increased risk of breast cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy in males does not increase the risk of breast cancer.

5. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?

• A. Pulmonary edema
• B. Jugular venous distention
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Reduced cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share the common denominator of reduced cardiac output, which leads to inadequate tissue perfusion. Pulmonary edema (choice A) is a consequence of heart failure but not the common denominator. Jugular venous distention (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are signs of heart failure but do not represent the common denominator shared by all forms.

Similar Questions