ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients should be educated about signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the legs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and menopausal symptoms, or causing weight gain and fluid retention.
2. In a patient with chronic kidney disease and a hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL, which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
- A. Iron supplementation
- B. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents
- C. Blood transfusion
- D. Vitamin B12 supplementation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, anemia commonly occurs due to decreased erythropoietin production. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents, such as erythropoietin or darbepoetin, are the mainstay of treatment to stimulate red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is more appropriate for iron-deficiency anemia, not the anemia of chronic kidney disease. Blood transfusion is reserved for severe cases or acute blood loss. Vitamin B12 supplementation is indicated for megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, not specifically in chronic kidney disease-related anemia.
3. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:
- A. an ominous sign.
- B. normal and termed the postictal period.
- C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
- D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.
4. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?
- A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
- B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
- C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
- D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.
5. What important instruction should the nurse provide about taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for a patient with endometriosis?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Discontinue medroxyprogesterone if side effects occur.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This consistency is crucial for achieving therapeutic outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day, regardless of food intake. Choice C is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation rather than discontinuing the medication abruptly. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily for the prescribed duration.
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