Nursing Elites

1. A patient taking an oral contraceptive missed one pill. What should the nurse teach the patient to do?

• A. Take two pills as soon as you remember, then continue the regular schedule.
• B. Take one pill as soon as you remember, then continue the regular schedule.
• C. Skip the missed pill and continue the regular schedule.
• D. Take two pills immediately, then continue the regular schedule.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking an oral contraceptive misses one pill, the correct action is to take two pills as soon as they remember and then continue the regular schedule. Option A is the correct answer because doubling up the dose helps maintain the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Option B is incorrect because taking only one pill after missing one may decrease contraceptive effectiveness. Option C is wrong as skipping the missed pill can also reduce effectiveness. Option D is inaccurate because taking two pills immediately is not necessary; the patient should take the missed pill as soon as remembered and then resume the regular dosing schedule.

2. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of testosterone gel in a patient with hypogonadism?

• A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
• B. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
• C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
• D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back for better results.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel in a patient with hypogonadism is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This method helps avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, or genitals is not recommended as it can lead to unintended exposure to others. Additionally, applying the gel to the scalp and back is not a standard or effective route of administration for testosterone gel. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it ensures proper application and safety.

3. Which of the following describes the type of incontinence due to an increase in intraabdominal pressure such as coughing, sneezing, and laughing?

• A. Overflow
• B. Stress
• C. Mixed
• D. Functional

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stress. Stress incontinence occurs when there is an increase in intraabdominal pressure, for example, during activities like coughing, sneezing, or laughing, leading to urine leakage. This type of incontinence is specifically triggered by physical movements or activities that put pressure on the bladder. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because overflow incontinence is characterized by the bladder not emptying properly, mixed incontinence is a combination of stress and urge incontinence, and functional incontinence is typically due to physical or cognitive impairments.

4. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone can cause:

• A. adrenal crisis.
• B. hypercortisolism.
• C. ACTH stimulation.
• D. thyroid crisis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: adrenal crisis. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, resulting in adrenal crisis. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the adrenal glands' ability to produce cortisol. Abrupt withdrawal can cause a sudden drop in cortisol levels, leading to adrenal crisis with symptoms like fatigue, weakness, abdominal pain, and potentially life-threatening low blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercortisolism refers to excess cortisol levels, ACTH stimulation would not result from prednisone withdrawal, and thyroid crisis is not directly related to corticosteroid discontinuation.

5. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What is a critical point the nurse should include in the patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms but this is not the critical point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention, but it is not the critical point that the nurse should focus on in patient education.

Similar Questions