Nursing Elites

1. What symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Dyspnea on exertion
• B. Normal lung sounds
• C. Normal arterial blood gases
• D. Onset of the disease during young adulthood

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea on exertion. COPD typically manifests with symptoms like dyspnea on exertion due to impaired lung function. This symptom is a result of the airways being obstructed and the lungs not being able to expel air effectively. Choices B and C are incorrect because in COPD, abnormal lung sounds such as wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds are often heard upon auscultation, and arterial blood gases are usually abnormal, showing low oxygen levels and high carbon dioxide levels. Choice D is incorrect as COPD is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over 40 who have a history of smoking or exposure to lung irritants.

2. Which type of lymphocyte recognizes and eliminates virus-infected cells and cancerous cells?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Macrophages
• C. Natural killer cells
• D. Langerhans cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte that plays a crucial role in recognizing and eliminating virus-infected cells and cancerous cells. Neutrophils (Choice A) are a type of white blood cell involved in fighting infections, mainly through phagocytosis. Macrophages (Choice B) are another type of white blood cell that engulfs and digests cellular debris and pathogens. Langerhans cells (Choice D) are a type of dendritic cell found in the skin and mucosa, primarily involved in antigen presentation.

3. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about the risks associated with this therapy?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to reduce the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride has no impact on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride, a type of androgen therapy, has been shown to reduce the risk of developing prostate cancer. It works by shrinking the prostate gland, which can help lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, while it may reduce the risk, regular screening is still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride does have an impact on reducing the risk of prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does have an effect on reducing the risk of prostate cancer.

4. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?

• A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
• C. Central perfusion pressure (CPP)
• D. Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The Glasgow Coma Scale is specifically designed to assess a client's level of consciousness by evaluating verbal, motor, and eye-opening responses. Choice A, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), is a diagnostic imaging tool that provides detailed images of the body's organs and tissues but is not used to assess consciousness levels. Choice C, Central Perfusion Pressure (CPP), and Choice D, Intracranial Pressure (ICP) monitoring, are related to hemodynamic monitoring and intracranial pressure management, not direct assessment of consciousness.

5. Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Cold and heat application
• C. Therapeutic ultrasound
• D. Biofeedback

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cold and heat application. Cold and heat application are commonly used nonpharmacologic methods for managing pain and can complement pharmacologic treatments. Cold packs can help reduce inflammation and numb localized areas, while heat application can increase blood flow and relax muscles. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (A) focuses on changing negative thought patterns and behaviors to manage pain but may not directly supplement pharmacologic analgesia. Therapeutic ultrasound (C) uses sound waves to generate heat within body tissues, which can be therapeutic, but it may not be as directly complementary to pharmacologic analgesia as cold and heat application. Biofeedback (D) involves using electronic devices to help individuals control physiological processes, but its direct role as a supplement to pharmacologic analgesia may be less pronounced compared to cold and heat application.

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