ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?
- A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Increased prostate size
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. As a result, when the medication is effective, the patient should experience a decrease in urinary frequency and urgency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate because finasteride aims to reduce prostate size, not increase it. Choices C and D are unrelated to the action of finasteride in treating BPH.
2. An older adult man has moved to a long-term care facility, and the nurse is performing medication reconciliation. The resident's current medication regimen includes alfuzosin (Uroxatral). After considering the most likely indication for this drug, what potential problem should the nurse include in the resident's interdisciplinary plan of care?
- A. Impaired urinary elimination
- B. Ineffective sexual pattern
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Functional urinary incontinence
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Sexual dysfunction.' Alfuzosin is commonly prescribed for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), a condition that can lead to sexual dysfunction in older men. It is important to include this potential problem in the interdisciplinary plan of care to address the impact of the medication on the resident's sexual health. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while alfuzosin can affect urinary function, the primary concern related to this medication in this scenario is sexual dysfunction due to its indication for BPH.
3. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?
- A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
- B. Bacterial invasion
- C. Impaired arterial blood supply
- D. Metaplastic cellular changes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.
4. What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?
- A. Reduction in red blood cell count
- B. Decreased number of infections
- C. Decreased fatigue and increased energy
- D. Increase in white blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.
5. When starting on oral contraceptives, what important information should the nurse provide regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
- D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential for optimal efficacy. Choice C is inaccurate as oral contraceptives do not need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses or skipping oral contraceptives can reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
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