Nursing Elites

1. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
• B. Increased prostate size
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. As a result, when the medication is effective, the patient should experience a decrease in urinary frequency and urgency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate because finasteride aims to reduce prostate size, not increase it. Choices C and D are unrelated to the action of finasteride in treating BPH.

2. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?

• A. Pain is what the client says it is, even if she is not exhibiting outward signs.
• B. Pain should be treated only when it is associated with observable symptoms.
• C. Long-term opioid use is generally safe for elderly clients in a hospital setting.
• D. The client's pain should be reassessed after every dose of pain medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.

3. A patient is hospitalized with active tuberculosis. The patient is receiving antitubercular drug therapy and is not responding to the medications. What do you suspect the patient is suffering from?

• A. Human immunodeficiency virus
• B. Drug-resistant tuberculosis
• C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
• D. Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient with active tuberculosis is not responding to antitubercular drug therapy, drug-resistant tuberculosis should be suspected. Drug-resistant tuberculosis occurs when the bacteria causing tuberculosis become resistant to the medications being used. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario described does not align with HIV infection, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

4. A 35-year-old male has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and a mediastinal mass. He was diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma. Which of the following abnormal cells would the nurse expect to find with this disease?

• A. Merkel cell
• B. Schwann cell
• C. Reed-Sternberg cell
• D. Kupffer cell

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma. These large abnormal cells have a bi-lobed or multi-lobed nucleus and are essential for diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma through histological examination. Merkel cells are associated with Merkel cell carcinoma, Schwann cells are related to nerve sheaths, and Kupffer cells are liver macrophages. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect for Hodgkin lymphoma.

5. A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?

• A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn.
• B. Start an IV line and administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• C. Isolate the client to prevent the spread of infection.
• D. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.

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