ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Her thyroid function tests reveal low T3 and T4 levels and elevated TSH levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Euthyroid sick syndrome
- D. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The scenario describes a 45-year-old woman with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, low T3 and T4 levels, and elevated TSH levels, which are indicative of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, there is decreased production of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) leading to elevated TSH levels as the pituitary gland tries to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is hypothyroidism (Choice B). Choice A, Hyperthyroidism, is incorrect as the patient's symptoms and thyroid function tests point towards decreased thyroid hormone levels, which is characteristic of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Choice C, Euthyroid sick syndrome, is incorrect because this condition typically presents with normal to low T3 and T4 levels in the setting of non-thyroid illness, unlike the elevated TSH levels observed in this case. Choice D, Subclinical hyperthyroidism, is also incorrect as the patient has low T3 and T4 levels, which is not consistent with hyperthyroidism, whether clinical or subclinical.
2. When teaching a young woman about the use of hormonal contraceptives, a nurse should emphasize that these drugs are most effective when taken:
- A. Immediately after sexual intercourse.
- B. At the same time each day.
- C. Before going to bed at night.
- D. On an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each day.' Hormonal contraceptives should be taken consistently at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels, which is crucial for their effectiveness. Taking them at random times can increase the risk of contraceptive failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking hormonal contraceptives immediately after sexual intercourse, before going to bed at night, or on an empty stomach does not align with the recommended usage instructions for these drugs.
3. A patient with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. His blood pressure is 220/120 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Migraine
- B. Cluster headache
- C. Hypertensive emergency
- D. Tension headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A patient with a history of hypertension presenting with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances, along with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg, likely has a hypertensive emergency. In this situation, the severely elevated blood pressure can lead to end-organ damage, causing symptoms such as headache and confusion. Migraine and tension headaches are not associated with such high blood pressure levels. Cluster headaches typically do not present with visual disturbances and confusion in the setting of severe hypertension.
4. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. History of peptic ulcer disease
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates combined with sildenafil can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of peptic ulcer disease, use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of hypertension are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use.
5. A male patient with hypogonadism is receiving testosterone therapy. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Increased risk of breast cancer
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial when administering testosterone therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy does not typically lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.
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