Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Her thyroid function tests reveal low T3 and T4 levels and elevated TSH levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Euthyroid sick syndrome
• D. Subclinical hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The scenario describes a 45-year-old woman with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, low T3 and T4 levels, and elevated TSH levels, which are indicative of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, there is decreased production of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) leading to elevated TSH levels as the pituitary gland tries to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is hypothyroidism (Choice B). Choice A, Hyperthyroidism, is incorrect as the patient's symptoms and thyroid function tests point towards decreased thyroid hormone levels, which is characteristic of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Choice C, Euthyroid sick syndrome, is incorrect because this condition typically presents with normal to low T3 and T4 levels in the setting of non-thyroid illness, unlike the elevated TSH levels observed in this case. Choice D, Subclinical hyperthyroidism, is also incorrect as the patient has low T3 and T4 levels, which is not consistent with hyperthyroidism, whether clinical or subclinical.

2. Which goal is a priority for a client with a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of delirium and the nursing diagnosis Acute confusion related to recent surgery secondary to traumatic hip fracture?

• A. The client will complete activities of daily living.
• B. The client will maintain safety.
• C. The client will remain oriented.
• D. The client will understand communication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The client will maintain safety.' For a client with delirium, especially in the context of acute confusion post-surgery, safety is the top priority. Delirium can lead to disorientation, impaired decision-making, and increased risk of falls or accidents. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent harm is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are important but not the priority in this scenario. Completing activities of daily living, remaining oriented, and understanding communication are relevant goals but come after ensuring the client's safety in the presence of delirium and acute confusion.

3. Which clients are at highest risk for pneumonia?

• A. Those in their 20s and 30s and generally healthy
• B. Those who exercise regularly and are not exposed to pathogens
• C. Those who are hospitalized and immunocompromised
• D. Those who have adequate respiratory function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients who are hospitalized and immunocompromised are at the highest risk for pneumonia due to their weakened immune systems. Choice A is incorrect as young and healthy individuals typically have stronger immune systems. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise can actually boost the immune system and reduce the risk of infections. Choice D is incorrect as having adequate respiratory function does not necessarily correlate with the risk of developing pneumonia.

4. In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. BPH
• C. Chronic renal failure
• D. Type 2 diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.

5. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone can cause:

• A. adrenal crisis.
• B. hypercortisolism.
• C. ACTH stimulation.
• D. thyroid crisis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: adrenal crisis. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, resulting in adrenal crisis. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the adrenal glands' ability to produce cortisol. Abrupt withdrawal can cause a sudden drop in cortisol levels, leading to adrenal crisis with symptoms like fatigue, weakness, abdominal pain, and potentially life-threatening low blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercortisolism refers to excess cortisol levels, ACTH stimulation would not result from prednisone withdrawal, and thyroid crisis is not directly related to corticosteroid discontinuation.

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