Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Her thyroid function tests reveal low T3 and T4 levels and elevated TSH levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Euthyroid sick syndrome
• D. Subclinical hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The scenario describes a 45-year-old woman with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, low T3 and T4 levels, and elevated TSH levels, which are indicative of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, there is decreased production of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) leading to elevated TSH levels as the pituitary gland tries to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is hypothyroidism (Choice B). Choice A, Hyperthyroidism, is incorrect as the patient's symptoms and thyroid function tests point towards decreased thyroid hormone levels, which is characteristic of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Choice C, Euthyroid sick syndrome, is incorrect because this condition typically presents with normal to low T3 and T4 levels in the setting of non-thyroid illness, unlike the elevated TSH levels observed in this case. Choice D, Subclinical hyperthyroidism, is also incorrect as the patient has low T3 and T4 levels, which is not consistent with hyperthyroidism, whether clinical or subclinical.

2. An imbalance of which of the following hormones could lead to increased calcium levels in the blood?

• A. Parathyroid hormone
• B. Antidiuretic hormone
• C. Calcitonin
• D. Melatonin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Parathyroid hormone (Choice A). Parathyroid hormone plays a key role in regulating calcium levels in the blood. When there is an imbalance in parathyroid hormone secretion, it can lead to increased calcium levels in the blood. Antidiuretic hormone (Choice B) is involved in regulating water balance, not calcium levels. Calcitonin (Choice C) helps lower blood calcium levels and is unlikely to cause an increase. Melatonin (Choice D) regulates sleep-wake cycles and does not have a direct effect on calcium levels in the blood.

3. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?

• A. Use of nitrates
• B. Use of antihypertensive medications
• C. History of hypertension
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice B (Use of antihypertensive medications) is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice C (History of hypertension) is incorrect as it is not a contraindication for sildenafil; in fact, sildenafil is sometimes used in patients with hypertension. Choice D (History of peptic ulcer disease) is also incorrect as it is not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use.

4. How often should a patient be administered a tetanus toxoid?

• A. Every year
• B. Every 10 years
• C. Every 2 years
• D. Every 5 years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tetanus toxoid should be administered every 10 years to ensure continued protection against tetanus infection. The correct answer is 'Every 10 years.' Choice A ('Every year') is incorrect as the frequency is too frequent. Choice C ('Every 2 years') is incorrect as it is too frequent for tetanus toxoid administration. Choice D ('Every 5 years') is incorrect as it does not align with the recommended interval for tetanus toxoid booster doses.

5. In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. BPH
• C. Chronic renal failure
• D. Type 2 diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.

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