82 year old mr robeson together with his daughter arrived at the medical surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.

2. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Persistent chest pain that may radiate to the arm is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction. This pain is typically described as crushing, pressure-like, or squeezing. Choice B is incorrect because brief sternal chest pain on inspiration is not characteristic of myocardial infarction. Choice C is incorrect because rapid respirations with left-sided weakness and numbness are not typical symptoms of myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because left upper quadrant abdominal pain that radiates to the back and shoulder is not a common presentation of myocardial infarction.

3. A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.

4. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

5. Which physiologic response is most likely to accompany activation of the parasympathetic nervous system?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased gastric motility. The parasympathetic nervous system is known to promote rest and digest functions, which includes increasing gastric motility to aid in digestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are more characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response, leading to increased heart rate (Choice A), pupil dilation (Choice C), and sweating (Choice D) among other responses.

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