Nursing Elites

1. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?

• A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
• B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
• C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
• D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.

2. In a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax), what is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Increased hair growth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Tamsulosin is prescribed for patients with BPH to relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation helps in relieving the symptoms of BPH, such as decreased urinary flow, frequent urination, and urgency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not increase urinary output but rather improves the flow of urine by relaxing the muscles. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin is not primarily used for reducing blood pressure. Choice D is also incorrect as tamsulosin does not promote increased hair growth.

3. How are antibodies produced?

• A. B cells
• B. T cells
• C. Helper cells
• D. Memory cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antibodies are produced by B cells. B cells are specialized white blood cells that generate antibodies as part of the immune response. B cells differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies. T cells play a role in cell-mediated immunity, not antibody production. Helper cells, or helper T cells, assist in activating B cells but do not directly produce antibodies. Memory cells store information about previous infections but do not actively produce antibodies.

4. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

• A. They improve treatment adherence.
• B. They reduce the duration of illness.
• C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
• D. They prevent opportunistic infections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

5. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

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