Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?

• A. Urinalysis
• B. Renal ultrasound
• C. Cystoscopy
• D. Intravenous pyelogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.

2. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?

• A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
• B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
• C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
• D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.

3. During surgery, the anesthesia personnel notice the client is having a steady rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide level. At this time, the nurse anesthetist begins to assess the client for malignant hyperthermia. The initial (priority) assessment for this disorder may include:

• A. measuring serum potassium levels.
• B. monitoring for muscle rigidity.
• C. evaluating renal function.
• D. checking arterial blood gases.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: monitoring for muscle rigidity. Muscle rigidity is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Monitoring for this sign is critical in the early identification of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial priority assessments for malignant hyperthermia. Measuring serum potassium levels, evaluating renal function, and checking arterial blood gases are not specific initial assessments for malignant hyperthermia and would not aid in its early identification.

4. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

• A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
• B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
• C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
• D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

5. A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?

• A. Iron deficiency anemia
• B. Sideroblastic anemia
• C. Pernicious anemia
• D. Hemolytic anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is associated with a congenital intrinsic factor deficiency, leading to the impaired absorption of vitamin B12. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice A) is not directly related to intrinsic factor deficiency. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by defective iron uptake by developing erythrocytes and is not linked to intrinsic factor deficiency. Hemolytic anemia (Choice D) involves the premature destruction of red blood cells and is not specifically associated with intrinsic factor deficiency.

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