ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.
2. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?
- A. A finger laceration received while cutting onions
- B. A stage IV pressure ulcer that developed in a nursing home
- C. A needlestick injury received while administering parenteral medication
- D. An incision from an open appendectomy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.
3. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?
- A. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
- B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) and doxapram (Dopram)
- D. Propranolol (Inderal) and sotalol (Betapace)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.
4. After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:
- A. Contain no RNA or DNA
- B. Are capable of independent reproduction
- C. Replicate their genetic material inside host cells
- D. Are killed easily by antimicrobials
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Viruses replicate their genetic material inside host cells, which is a fundamental aspect of their life cycle. Choice A is incorrect because viruses contain either RNA or DNA. Choice B is incorrect as viruses cannot reproduce independently and rely on host cells for replication. Choice D is incorrect as viruses are not easily killed by antimicrobials due to their unique structure and mechanisms of infection.
5. An older adult man has moved to a long-term care facility, and the nurse is performing medication reconciliation. The resident's current medication regimen includes alfuzosin (Uroxatral). After considering the most likely indication for this drug, what potential problem should the nurse include in the resident's interdisciplinary plan of care?
- A. Impaired urinary elimination
- B. Ineffective sexual pattern
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Functional urinary incontinence
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Sexual dysfunction.' Alfuzosin is commonly prescribed for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), a condition that can lead to sexual dysfunction in older men. It is important to include this potential problem in the interdisciplinary plan of care to address the impact of the medication on the resident's sexual health. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while alfuzosin can affect urinary function, the primary concern related to this medication in this scenario is sexual dysfunction due to its indication for BPH.
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