a patient is taking raloxifene evista for osteoporosis what is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication
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ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

2. A patient's anemia is described as having erythrocytes that demonstrate anisocytosis. The nurse would recognize the erythrocytes as:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Present in various sizes.' Anisocytosis refers to erythrocytes that are present in various sizes, indicating an abnormality in the uniformity of red blood cell size. Choice A is incorrect because anisocytosis does not refer to the color of erythrocytes. Choice C is incorrect as anisocytosis does not involve the shape of erythrocytes. Choice D is incorrect as anisocytosis does not determine the lifespan of erythrocytes.

3. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Taking the medication with milk (choice B) is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of alendronate. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice C) is not necessary for optimal absorption. Taking the medication with food (choice D) is also not recommended as food can reduce the absorption of alendronate.

4. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.

5. What should the nurse teach the boy about anabolic steroid abuse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because anabolic steroids are indeed universally dangerous, but they pose greater risks to adolescents due to their impact on growth and development. Choice A is incorrect because anabolic steroids do have the potential to build muscle mass, though not to the extent often portrayed in the media. Choice C is incorrect as muscle mass gained from steroid use may persist for a period even after discontinuation. Choice D is incorrect as anabolic steroids can enhance muscle performance initially, though long-term use can have adverse effects on health and not specifically on the ability to perform weight-bearing exercises.

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