ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A patient is starting on finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
- B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
- C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
- D. The medication may decrease libido.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this expected time frame to manage expectations. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps in managing symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as one of the side effects of finasteride is decreased hair growth. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride may cause a decrease in libido as a side effect.
2. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. Use of antihypertensive medications
- C. History of hypertension
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice B (Use of antihypertensive medications) is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice C (History of hypertension) is incorrect as it is not a contraindication for sildenafil; in fact, sildenafil is sometimes used in patients with hypertension. Choice D (History of peptic ulcer disease) is also incorrect as it is not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use.
3. Macular degeneration occurs as a result of:
- A. loss of lens accommodation
- B. detachment of the retina
- C. increased intraocular pressure
- D. impaired blood supply leading to cellular waste accumulation and ischemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Macular degeneration is a condition that affects the macula, a part of the retina responsible for central vision. It is primarily caused by impaired blood supply to the macula, leading to cellular waste accumulation and ischemia. This results in the death of photoreceptor cells and ultimately vision loss. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because macular degeneration is not related to the loss of lens accommodation, detachment of the retina, or increased intraocular pressure. The correct answer directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology of macular degeneration.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
- B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
- C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.
5. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?
- A. Infective endocarditis
- B. Coronary artery disease
- C. Mitral valve stenosis
- D. Aortic regurgitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.
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