ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?
- A. To produce energy in the form of ATP
- B. To synthesize proteins
- C. To store genetic information
- D. To regulate cell growth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To produce energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through a process called cellular respiration. This energy is essential for various cellular activities. Choice B is incorrect because protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes. Choice C is incorrect as the genetic information is stored in the cell's nucleus. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of cell growth involves various other organelles and processes within the cell.
2. A client with chronic bronchitis is receiving education from a healthcare provider about the condition. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid being around people who smoke.
- B. I should try to avoid any exposure to pollutants and irritants.
- C. I should limit my fluid intake to avoid worsening my cough.
- D. I should use my inhaler regularly, even when I don't have symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting fluid intake is not recommended for chronic bronchitis. Hydration is essential as it helps thin mucus, making it easier to clear from the airways. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements for managing chronic bronchitis. Avoiding exposure to smoke, pollutants, and irritants can help reduce respiratory symptoms and exacerbations. Using the inhaler regularly, even in the absence of symptoms, is crucial for controlling inflammation and maintaining airway function.
3. When a client has their 'fight or flight' system activated, which below is a manifestation of that?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Decreased respiration rate
- D. Increased glucose levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased glucose levels.' When the 'fight or flight' system is activated, the body releases glucose to provide energy for the impending response. This increase in glucose levels helps fuel the body's reaction to the perceived threat or stressor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because during the 'fight or flight' response, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration rate typically increase to prepare the body to confront or flee from the perceived danger.
4. A 34-year-old woman has presented to the clinic for the first time, and the nurse learns that she has been taking Depo Provera for the past 13 years. This aspect of the woman's medical history should prompt what assessment?
- A. Cardiac stress testing
- B. Renal ultrasound
- C. Bone density testing
- D. Evaluation of triglyceride levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is bone density testing (Choice C). Long-term use of Depo Provera, a hormonal contraceptive, is associated with decreased bone mineral density. Assessing bone density is crucial to monitor for potential osteoporosis. Cardiac stress testing (Choice A) is not indicated based on the medication history provided. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and evaluation of triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not directly related to the use of Depo Provera.
5. What important point should the nurse emphasize about taking oral contraceptives consistently?
- A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid side effects at night.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
- D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for patients taking oral contraceptives to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels, which is essential for their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of the medication is more about consistency than avoiding side effects at night. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives do not necessarily need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because skipping oral contraceptives occasionally can significantly reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access