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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To produce energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through a process called cellular respiration. This energy is essential for various cellular activities. Choice B is incorrect because protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes. Choice C is incorrect as the genetic information is stored in the cell's nucleus. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of cell growth involves various other organelles and processes within the cell.

2. A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.

3. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is being treated with tamsulosin (Flomax). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.' Patients taking tamsulosin should be advised to report any side effects, such as dizziness or fainting, which can occur due to orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding lying down after taking the medication, taking it with meals, or at bedtime are not specific teaching points related to the potential side effects of tamsulosin.

4. When starting on oral contraceptives, what important information should the nurse provide regarding the timing of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential for optimal efficacy. Choice C is inaccurate as oral contraceptives do not need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses or skipping oral contraceptives can reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.

5. In a patient with renal failure secondary to an overdose of a nephrotoxic drug, which assessment findings would the nurse recognize as being most suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Impaired erythropoiesis refers to a decreased production of red blood cells. This can lead to anemia, resulting in symptoms like fatigue and increased heart rate (Choice B). However, the question specifically asks about assessment findings suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. In this context, frequent infections and low neutrophil levels (Choice A) are more directly related to impaired erythropoiesis due to the impact of anemia on the immune system. Frequent infections are common in anemia due to a compromised immune response, and low neutrophil levels can be seen in conditions of impaired erythropoiesis. Agitation and changes in cognition (Choice C) are more indicative of neurological issues, while increased blood pressure and peripheral edema (Choice D) are commonly associated with renal failure but not specifically related to impaired erythropoiesis.

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