ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?
- A. To produce energy in the form of ATP
- B. To synthesize proteins
- C. To store genetic information
- D. To regulate cell growth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To produce energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through a process called cellular respiration. This energy is essential for various cellular activities. Choice B is incorrect because protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes. Choice C is incorrect as the genetic information is stored in the cell's nucleus. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of cell growth involves various other organelles and processes within the cell.
2. A woman has been prescribed Climara, a transdermal estradiol patch. Which of the following should she be instructed by the nurse regarding the administration?
- A. Avoid prolonged sun exposure at the patch site due to increased plasma concentrations.
- B. The application of heat at the patch site will decrease effectiveness and result in pregnancy.
- C. The medication, when exposed to sunlight, can increase the risk of breast cancer.
- D. Exposure of the medication to occasional cold will increase effectiveness with application.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The Climara patch delivers estradiol transdermally, and patients should be instructed to avoid prolonged sun exposure at the patch site due to increased plasma concentrations. Sun exposure can accelerate the absorption of the medication, leading to higher systemic levels than intended. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because heat at the patch site does not result in pregnancy but may alter absorption rates, there is no direct link between sunlight exposure and breast cancer risk related to this medication, and exposure to cold does not increase effectiveness of the transdermal patch.
3. Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS?
- A. HIV only infects B cells
- B. HIV is a retrovirus
- C. Infection does not require a host cell receptor
- D. After infection, cell death is immediate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIV is a retrovirus that infects T cells and leads to the gradual destruction of the immune system. Choice A is incorrect because HIV infects T cells primarily, not just B cells. Choice C is incorrect because HIV infection requires host cell receptors for entry. Choice D is incorrect because cell death after HIV infection is not immediate; instead, the virus gradually weakens the immune system over time.
4. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption.
- B. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Taking the medication with milk (choice B) is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of alendronate. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice C) is not necessary for optimal absorption. Taking the medication with food (choice D) is also not recommended as food can reduce the absorption of alendronate.
5. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?
- A. The client has difficulty swallowing.
- B. The client has loss of gag reflex.
- C. The client has an inability to smell.
- D. The client has impaired eye movement.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.
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