ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?
- A. To produce energy in the form of ATP
- B. To synthesize proteins
- C. To store genetic information
- D. To regulate cell growth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To produce energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through a process called cellular respiration. This energy is essential for various cellular activities. Choice B is incorrect because protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes. Choice C is incorrect as the genetic information is stored in the cell's nucleus. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of cell growth involves various other organelles and processes within the cell.
2. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. The medication is expected to reduce the size of the prostate, which should improve urinary symptoms over time.
- B. The medication will improve symptoms within a few days.
- C. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
- D. The medication may cause erectile dysfunction as a side effect.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Finasteride is expected to reduce the size of the prostate, which should improve urinary symptoms over time, although the effects may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
3. Which symptoms are typical of asthma?
- A. Chest pain; cough
- B. Diarrhea; wheezing
- C. Wheezing; dyspnea
- D. Tachypnea; constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wheezing and dyspnea are typical symptoms of asthma. Wheezing refers to a high-pitched whistling sound while breathing, and dyspnea is shortness of breath. These symptoms are classic signs of airway obstruction and inflammation seen in asthma. Choice A is incorrect as chest pain is not a typical symptom of asthma, though coughing can occur. Choice B is incorrect as diarrhea is not associated with asthma, while wheezing is a common symptom. Choice D is incorrect as tachypnea (rapid breathing) can occur in asthma, but constipation is not a typical symptom.
4. After ingestion of cysts, how long does it take for the symptoms of giardiasis to develop?
- A. 12 to 24 hours
- B. 3 to 5 days
- C. 1 to 2 weeks
- D. 2 to 3 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Giardiasis symptoms typically develop 3 to 5 days after ingestion of the cysts. This timeframe aligns with the incubation period of the Giardia parasite. Choice A (12 to 24 hours) is too short for giardiasis to manifest. Choice C (1 to 2 weeks) and choice D (2 to 3 months) represent durations that are not consistent with the usual onset of symptoms in giardiasis.
5. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?
- A. A finger laceration received while cutting onions
- B. A stage IV pressure ulcer that developed in a nursing home
- C. A needlestick injury received while administering parenteral medication
- D. An incision from an open appendectomy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.
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