a woman is being treated with clomiphene citrate for the treatment of infertility she states to the nurse that she has seen an increase in vaginal dis
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. A woman is being treated with clomiphene citrate for the treatment of infertility. She states to the nurse that she has seen an increase in vaginal discharge. The nurse knows that this effect is related to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increased production of vaginal secretions.' Clomiphene citrate affects cervical mucus production, leading to an increase in vaginal secretions. This effect is beneficial for fertility as it helps create a more hospitable environment for sperm transport. Choice A, 'Increased blood flow to the vaginal area,' is incorrect as the increase in vaginal discharge is primarily due to changes in cervical mucus. Choice B, 'Increased cervical mucus production,' is partially correct but does not fully explain the increase in vaginal secretions. Choice D, 'Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal,' is not directly related to the effect seen with clomiphene citrate treatment for infertility.

2. A patient suffers from an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following represents a potential result of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with an autoimmune disorder, a viral infection can trigger an immune response where lymphocytes mistakenly recognize the host's tissue as foreign. This can lead to an exacerbation of the autoimmune condition. Choice B is incorrect because erythrocytes are not responsible for destroying T cells. Choice C is incorrect as thymus involution weakens the immune response, making the patient more susceptible to infections rather than increasing the infection risk. Choice D is unrelated to the potential effects of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder.

3. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the proper use of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Consistency in timing helps regulate the hormone levels in the body, ensuring the medication's optimal benefit. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid sun exposure with this medication. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting the healthcare provider may not be safe. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone acetate is typically taken orally and not applied topically once a week.

4. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.

5. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.

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