ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A woman is being treated with clomiphene citrate for the treatment of infertility. She states to the nurse that she has seen an increase in vaginal discharge. The nurse knows that this effect is related to:
- A. Increased blood flow to the vaginal area.
- B. Increased cervical mucus production.
- C. Increased production of vaginal secretions.
- D. Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increased production of vaginal secretions.' Clomiphene citrate affects cervical mucus production, leading to an increase in vaginal secretions. This effect is beneficial for fertility as it helps create a more hospitable environment for sperm transport. Choice A, 'Increased blood flow to the vaginal area,' is incorrect as the increase in vaginal discharge is primarily due to changes in cervical mucus. Choice B, 'Increased cervical mucus production,' is partially correct but does not fully explain the increase in vaginal secretions. Choice D, 'Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal,' is not directly related to the effect seen with clomiphene citrate treatment for infertility.
2. A female patient is concerned about the side effects of oral contraceptives. What should the nurse explain as a common side effect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Decreased libido
- C. Weight gain
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of oral contraceptives due to hormonal changes. It is essential for healthcare providers to inform patients about this possibility to manage expectations. Choice A, increased energy levels, is not a common side effect of oral contraceptives. Choice B, decreased libido, can be a side effect for some individuals but is not as common as weight gain. Choice D, hair loss, is not typically associated with oral contraceptives. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to address the patient's concerns by discussing the more prevalent side effects like weight gain.
3. Which ability should Nurse Rebecca expect from a client in the mild stage of dementia of the Alzheimer’s type?
- A. Remembering the daily schedule
- B. Recalling past events
- C. Coping with anxiety
- D. Solving problems of daily living
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the mild stage of dementia of the Alzheimer’s type, clients can often recall past events but may have difficulty with new information. Therefore, Nurse Rebecca should expect the client to have the ability to recall past events. Choice A is incorrect because remembering the daily schedule may become challenging as the disease progresses. Choice C is incorrect as clients in the mild stage may experience anxiety, but coping with anxiety is not a specific ability associated with this stage of dementia. Choice D is incorrect as solving problems of daily living becomes more challenging as the disease advances, not in the mild stage.
4. A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
- A. Sideroblastic anemia
- B. Hemolytic anemia
- C. Pernicious anemia
- D. Iron deficiency anemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hemolytic anemia. Normocytic-normochromic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by normal-sized and normal-colored red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to normocytic-normochromic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice A) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (Choice C) is due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice D) is characterized by microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells.
5. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?
- A. Clarithromycin
- B. Pyrazinamide
- C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
- D. Azithromycin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.
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