Nursing Elites

1. A woman is being treated with clomiphene citrate for the treatment of infertility. She states to the nurse that she has seen an increase in vaginal discharge. The nurse knows that this effect is related to:

• A. Increased blood flow to the vaginal area.
• B. Increased cervical mucus production.
• C. Increased production of vaginal secretions.
• D. Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increased production of vaginal secretions.' Clomiphene citrate affects cervical mucus production, leading to an increase in vaginal secretions. This effect is beneficial for fertility as it helps create a more hospitable environment for sperm transport. Choice A, 'Increased blood flow to the vaginal area,' is incorrect as the increase in vaginal discharge is primarily due to changes in cervical mucus. Choice B, 'Increased cervical mucus production,' is partially correct but does not fully explain the increase in vaginal secretions. Choice D, 'Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal,' is not directly related to the effect seen with clomiphene citrate treatment for infertility.

2. Muscular dystrophy is a result of an abnormality of the muscle protein:

• A. glycoprotein
• B. dystrophin
• C. troponin
• D. actinomyosin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscular dystrophy is primarily caused by mutations in the gene that provides instructions for making the protein dystrophin. Dystrophin plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure of muscle fibers. Glycoprotein is a general term for proteins with sugar molecules attached, not specifically related to muscular dystrophy. Troponin is a protein involved in muscle contraction regulation, and actinomyosin is not a specific muscle protein but a complex formed during muscle contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is dystrophin.

3. What best describes sepsis?

• A. An overwhelming allergic reaction
• B. Severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins
• C. Unknown causes resulting in hypertension
• D. Poor nursing and health care provider interventions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sepsis is a severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins, leading to widespread infection and organ dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as sepsis is not primarily an allergic reaction. Choice C is incorrect as sepsis is not characterized by unknown causes resulting in hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as sepsis is a medical condition and not solely caused by poor nursing or healthcare provider interventions.

4. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?

• A. Pain is what the client says it is, even if she is not exhibiting outward signs.
• B. Pain should be treated only when it is associated with observable symptoms.
• C. Long-term opioid use is generally safe for elderly clients in a hospital setting.
• D. The client's pain should be reassessed after every dose of pain medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing?

• A. Pseudomembranous colitis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Appendicitis
• D. Esophageal cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Appendicitis. The symptoms described - lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, diarrhea, and tenderness upon palpation - are classic signs of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammatory condition of the appendix that often presents with these symptoms and requires immediate medical attention. Choice A, Pseudomembranous colitis, typically presents with watery diarrhea and is associated with antibiotic use. Choice B, Peptic ulcer disease, commonly presents with epigastric pain related to meals and can be accompanied by nausea or vomiting, but it does not typically cause right lower quadrant pain. Choice D, Esophageal cancer, usually presents with symptoms related to swallowing difficulties, weight loss, and sometimes chest pain, but it is not associated with the symptoms described in the scenario.

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