Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?

• A. Hypotonia
• B. Hyperreflexia
• C. Muscle atrophy
• D. Fasciculations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
• C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
• D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.

3. What potential risk should the nurse identify as being associated with infliximab (Remicade) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Risk for decreased level of consciousness
• C. Risk for nephrotoxicity
• D. Risk for hepatotoxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for infection. Infliximab (Remicade) is a medication used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. One of the main risks associated with infliximab is an increased susceptibility to infections due to its immunosuppressive effects. This drug works by targeting specific proteins in the body's immune system, which can weaken the body's ability to fight off infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infliximab is not typically associated with decreased level of consciousness, nephrotoxicity, or hepatotoxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on infliximab for signs of infection and educate them on the importance of infection prevention strategies.

4. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
• D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

5. A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:

• A. Sympathetic nerves.
• B. Parasympathetic nerves.
• C. Somatic nerves.
• D. Spinal reflexes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.

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