Nursing Elites

1. A patient who was frequently homeless over the past several years has begun a drug regimen consisting solely of isoniazid (INH). What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?

• A. Active tuberculosis
• B. Latent tuberculosis
• C. Mycobacterium avium complex
• D. Human immunodeficiency virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active tuberculosis. Given the patient's history of homelessness and initiation of isoniazid (INH) treatment, the most likely diagnosis is active tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a first-line medication used in the treatment of active tuberculosis. Latent tuberculosis (choice B) would not typically necessitate treatment with isoniazid alone. Mycobacterium avium complex (choice C) is not typically treated with isoniazid alone. Human immunodeficiency virus (choice D) is a risk factor for developing tuberculosis but is not the primary diagnosis in this patient scenario.

2. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.

3. During a late-night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which component of her nervous system contains the highest level of control of her arm and hand action?

• A. Cerebral cortex
• B. Basal ganglia
• C. Brainstem
• D. Cerebellum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cerebral cortex. The cerebral cortex, particularly the motor cortex, is responsible for the voluntary control of precise movements such as turning a page. The cerebral cortex plays a crucial role in the highest level of control of motor functions, including those of the arm and hand. Choice B, Basal ganglia, is more involved in motor planning and coordination, while choice C, Brainstem, is responsible for basic life functions and reflexes. Choice D, Cerebellum, is primarily involved in coordination, precision, and accurate timing of movements, rather than the highest level of control for specific actions like page-turning.

4. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

5. A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?

• A. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
• B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• C. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
• D. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.

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