ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient who was frequently homeless over the past several years has begun a drug regimen consisting solely of isoniazid (INH). What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?
- A. Active tuberculosis
- B. Latent tuberculosis
- C. Mycobacterium avium complex
- D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active tuberculosis. Given the patient's history of homelessness and initiation of isoniazid (INH) treatment, the most likely diagnosis is active tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a first-line medication used in the treatment of active tuberculosis. Latent tuberculosis (choice B) would not typically necessitate treatment with isoniazid alone. Mycobacterium avium complex (choice C) is not typically treated with isoniazid alone. Human immunodeficiency virus (choice D) is a risk factor for developing tuberculosis but is not the primary diagnosis in this patient scenario.
2. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Bronchospasm
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.
3. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
- A. Eosinophils
- B. Neutrophils
- C. Leukotrienes
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to a bacterial infection. They are phagocytes that engulf and destroy bacteria, playing a crucial role in the early stages of the immune response. Eosinophils are primarily involved in combating parasitic infections and allergic reactions, not bacterial infections. Leukotrienes are signaling molecules that contribute to inflammation and immune responses, but they are not cells. Monocytes are another type of white blood cell that differentiates into macrophages and dendritic cells, playing a role in immune response but not as immediate as neutrophils.
4. A patient is receiving intravenous amphotericin. Which of the following assessments warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Hematocrit of 39%
- C. Blood urea nitrogen of 60 mg/dL
- D. AST level of 10 Unit/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous amphotericin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to increased blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates impaired renal function, which is a known adverse effect of amphotericin. Therefore, a BUN level of 60 mg/dL warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent. The other options, such as a sodium level of 138 mEq/L, hematocrit of 39%, and AST level of 10 Unit/L, are within normal ranges and not indicative of the need to discontinue amphotericin therapy.
5. In which of the following cases is dehydration more likely to occur?
- A. A 50-year-old woman who is a bodybuilder
- B. A 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese
- C. A 10-year-old child who is thin
- D. A 30-year-old with multiple sclerosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Morbid obesity increases the risk of dehydration due to the larger body surface area and potential for greater insensible losses. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to experience dehydration compared to a morbidly obese individual.
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