which of the following is a characteristic of osteosarcoma
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of osteosarcoma?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osteosarcoma is an aggressive bone tumor that most commonly arises in the bone marrow of long bones, such as the femur or tibia. Choice A is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not a slow-growing tumor but rather a fast-growing one. Choice B is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not typically solitary but can involve multiple lesions. Choice D is incorrect as osteosarcoma primarily affects the medullary (marrow) cavity of bones, rather than infiltrating the trabeculae in spongy bone and surrounding tissue.

2. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.

3. What instruction should the nurse include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis is to “Take your pill on the same day each week.” This is essential because chloroquine is typically taken once a week on the same day to ensure consistent protection against malaria. Choice B is incorrect because while rashes are a possible side effect of chloroquine, they are not a usual occurrence and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because chloroquine does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as chloroquine is typically administered orally, not by injection.

4. Macular degeneration occurs as a result of:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Macular degeneration is a condition that affects the macula, a part of the retina responsible for central vision. It is primarily caused by impaired blood supply to the macula, leading to cellular waste accumulation and ischemia. This results in the death of photoreceptor cells and ultimately vision loss. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because macular degeneration is not related to the loss of lens accommodation, detachment of the retina, or increased intraocular pressure. The correct answer directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology of macular degeneration.

5. A 30-year-old woman is taking an oral contraceptive and is concerned about the potential side effects. What should the nurse include in the patient education?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.' It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient about common side effects of oral contraceptives, such as headaches and breast tenderness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss and increased energy levels (Choice A) are not common side effects of oral contraceptives. Similarly, increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not typical side effects. Finally, stating that oral contraceptives have no side effects (Choice D) is inaccurate as they can have various side effects, albeit usually mild and manageable.

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