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MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of osteosarcoma?
- A. Slow-growing tumor that begins in the bone marrow
- B. Solitary tumor that most often affects the metaphyseal region of the femur or tibia
- C. An aggressive tumor most often found in the bone marrow of long bones
- D. A tumor that infiltrates the trabeculae in spongy bone and implants in surrounding tissue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Osteosarcoma is an aggressive bone tumor that most commonly arises in the bone marrow of long bones, such as the femur or tibia. Choice A is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not a slow-growing tumor but rather a fast-growing one. Choice B is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not typically solitary but can involve multiple lesions. Choice D is incorrect as osteosarcoma primarily affects the medullary (marrow) cavity of bones, rather than infiltrating the trabeculae in spongy bone and surrounding tissue.
2. A patient suffers from dysmenorrhea. Which oral medication will be prescribed that has the ability to provide physiological actions on the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function?
- A. Estrogen
- B. Progestins
- C. Naproxen
- D. Ibuprofen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Progestins are prescribed for dysmenorrhea as they help reduce menstrual pain by inhibiting ovulation and decreasing the production of prostaglandins. Estrogen (Choice A) is not typically used alone in dysmenorrhea treatment as it can worsen symptoms. Naproxen (Choice C) and Ibuprofen (Choice D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) commonly used to relieve pain associated with dysmenorrhea, but they do not directly affect the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function like progestins do.
3. A healthcare professional is documenting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?
- A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
- B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
- C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
- D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pulmonary emboli can produce fever even without infection. This is known as a noninfectious cause of fever. Choices A, C, and D do not typically present with fever as a prominent symptom. Limited mobility, COPD, vascular dementia, hepatic encephalopathy, alcohol abuse, congestive heart failure, and peripheral edema are not directly associated with causing fever in the absence of infection, unlike pulmonary embolism.
4. A patient who is undergoing treatment for cytomegalovirus received his first dose of IV ganciclovir 3 days ago. When reviewing this patient's most recent blood work, what abnormality should the nurse most likely attribute to the use of this drug?
- A. Hemoglobin 17 g/dL (high normal)
- B. INR 3.8 (high)
- C. Platelet count 118,000/mm3 (low)
- D. Leukocytes 11,900/mm3 (high)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count 118,000/mm3 (low). Ganciclovir, used to treat cytomegalovirus, is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased platelet count (thrombocytopenia). This condition can increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with ganciclovir therapy. High hemoglobin levels (choice A) are not commonly seen with ganciclovir treatment. INR elevation (choice B) is associated with coagulation abnormalities, which are not a typical side effect of ganciclovir. Elevated leukocyte count (choice D) is not a common consequence of ganciclovir use.
5. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Right lower quadrant cramping
- B. Severe bloody diarrhea
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Mostly affects the rectum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right lower quadrant cramping. Crohn's disease commonly presents with abdominal pain, particularly in the right lower quadrant. Choice B, severe bloody diarrhea, is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, are not typical symptoms of Crohn's disease. Choice D is incorrect as Crohn's disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, not just the rectum.
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