ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. Peritonitis is a condition that can result in serious complications. Identify one of the complications.
- A. Increased peristalsis
- B. Dizziness and malaise
- C. Sepsis and shock
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Peritonitis can lead to severe complications such as sepsis and shock due to the infection spreading in the abdominal cavity. Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to infection, and shock is a life-threatening condition where the body's organs are not receiving enough blood flow. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased peristalsis is not a typical complication of peritonitis; dizziness and malaise, as well as nausea and vomiting, are symptoms rather than complications of the condition.
2. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, such as Evista, works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This medication is beneficial in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by slowing down the breakdown of bone tissue, thereby reducing the risk of fractures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
3. A 20-year-old college student has presented to the campus medical clinic seeking to begin oral contraceptive therapy. The nurse has recognized the need for adequate health education related to the patient's request. The nurse should emphasize the fact that successful prevention of pregnancy depends primarily on the patient's
- A. current health status.
- B. vigilant adherence to the drug regimen.
- C. knowledge of sexual health.
- D. risk factors for adverse effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'vigilant adherence to the drug regimen.' When initiating oral contraceptive therapy, the success of preventing pregnancy relies heavily on the patient's commitment to following the prescribed regimen consistently. Compliance with taking the oral contraceptives as directed is crucial for their effectiveness. Choice A, 'current health status,' is not the primary factor for successful prevention of pregnancy with oral contraceptives. Choice C, 'knowledge of sexual health,' while important, is not the primary determinant of contraceptive efficacy. Choice D, 'risk factors for adverse effects,' though relevant for monitoring and managing side effects, is not the primary focus for ensuring contraceptive success.
4. A client with heart failure is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?
- A. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid overload.
- B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation.
- D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client experiencing pulmonary edema due to heart failure, the priority intervention is to administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation. This helps in increasing the oxygen levels in the blood, thereby improving tissue perfusion and reducing the workload on the heart. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can also aid in improving oxygenation, but administering oxygen therapy directly addresses the immediate need for increased oxygen levels. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload and restricting fluid intake are important interventions in heart failure management, but in the acute situation of pulmonary edema, oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply to vital organs.
5. A 70-year-old patient is seen in the family practice clinic. Which of the following vaccines should be administered to prevent shingles?
- A. Zoster vaccine
- B. Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine
- C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
- D. Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zoster vaccine. The Zoster vaccine is recommended for the prevention of shingles in individuals aged 50 years and older. Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. The vaccine helps reduce the risk of developing shingles and decreases the severity and duration of the illness if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine is used to prevent infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b, Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is used to prevent HPV infections that can lead to cervical cancer and other cancers, and Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine is used to protect against infections caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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