a 41 year old male patient with a complex medical history has been referred to the endocrinology department diagnostic testing and assessment have res

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank

1. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Mumps
C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

2. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism?

A. Tachycardia
B. Constipation
C. Weight gain
D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia, which is an increased heart rate, is a classic clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, there is an excess production of thyroid hormones, leading to an increased metabolic rate. This increased metabolism can cause symptoms such as a rapid heart rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, weight gain, and fatigue are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, where there is a deficiency of thyroid hormones leading to a slower metabolic rate.

3. A patient is starting on finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
D. The medication may decrease libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this expected time frame to manage expectations. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps in managing symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as one of the side effects of finasteride is decreased hair growth. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride may cause a decrease in libido as a side effect.

4. A school nurse is meeting with a high school student who mentions that she is frustrated with her repeated outbreaks of cold sores. The student states that she tried an over-the-counter topical cream but that it failed to produce an appreciable improvement. The nurse should recognize that this student used what medication?

A. Ganciclovir
B. Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
C. Famciclovir (Famvir)
D. Docosanol (Abreva)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Docosanol (Abreva). Docosanol is an over-the-counter topical cream commonly used to treat cold sores caused by the herpes simplex virus. It works by inhibiting viral fusion to host cell membranes, reducing the spread of the virus. Ganciclovir (Choice A) is an antiviral medication used for the treatment of cytomegalovirus infections. Valacyclovir (Choice B) and Famciclovir (Choice C) are prescription antiviral medications used to treat herpes simplex virus infections but are not typically available over-the-counter like Docosanol.

5. A 30-year-old has poorly controlled asthma and is taking prednisone 10 mg by mouth once a day. He has been on this regimen for 6 weeks. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of this medication can cause:

A. adrenal crisis
B. hypercortisolism
C. ACTH stimulation
D. thyroid crisis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to adrenal crisis. This occurs due to the suppression of the adrenal glands' natural cortisol production caused by prolonged exogenous steroid administration. Adrenal crisis presents with symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, abdominal pain, and hypotension. Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) results from chronic excessive exposure to cortisol, not abrupt withdrawal. ACTH stimulation would be expected in response to low cortisol levels, not as a direct consequence of prednisone withdrawal. Thyroid crisis (thyroid storm) is associated with severe hyperthyroidism and is not directly related to corticosteroid withdrawal.