a 41 year old male patient with a complex medical history has been referred to the endocrinology department diagnostic testing and assessment have res
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank

1. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

2. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This is important to prevent the transfer of the medication to others. Applying it to the face and neck (Choice A) is incorrect as these areas are not recommended. Similarly, applying it to the scalp and back (Choice C) or the genitals (Choice D) is also incorrect and can lead to inappropriate absorption or undesirable effects.

3. What instruction should the nurse include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis is to “Take your pill on the same day each week.” This is essential because chloroquine is typically taken once a week on the same day to ensure consistent protection against malaria. Choice B is incorrect because while rashes are a possible side effect of chloroquine, they are not a usual occurrence and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because chloroquine does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as chloroquine is typically administered orally, not by injection.

4. A 30-year-old woman is taking an oral contraceptive and is concerned about the potential side effects. What should the nurse include in the patient education?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.' It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient about common side effects of oral contraceptives, such as headaches and breast tenderness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss and increased energy levels (Choice A) are not common side effects of oral contraceptives. Similarly, increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not typical side effects. Finally, stating that oral contraceptives have no side effects (Choice D) is inaccurate as they can have various side effects, albeit usually mild and manageable.

5. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.

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