Nursing Elites

1. A patient is taking alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Take the medication in the morning with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
• C. Take the medication before bed to ensure absorption during sleep.
• D. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken in the morning with a full glass of water and the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with food as it can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication before bed increases the risk of esophageal irritation and reduces absorption due to lying down. Choice D is also incorrect because taking alendronate with milk or other calcium-rich foods can decrease its absorption.

2. A 60-year-old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Nephrotoxicity
• C. Cardiotoxicity
• D. Pulmonary toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Androgen therapy, such as testosterone, can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is toxic to the liver. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient's liver function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, or pulmonary toxicity.

3. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

4. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?

• A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
• B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
• C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
• D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.

5. After experiencing several months of worsening nocturia, a patient has been assessed for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and has begun drug treatment. In addition to nocturia, what other sign or symptom is most likely to accompany BPH?

• A. Hematuria
• B. Erectile dysfunction
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Flank pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hematuria. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is a common sign associated with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). It can occur due to irritation or damage to the prostate tissue. While urinary frequency and erectile dysfunction can also be seen in BPH patients, hematuria is more specifically linked to prostate issues. Flank pain is not typically a direct symptom of BPH.

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