ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. Why is a pulse oximeter attached to Mr. Dizon's finger?
- A. To determine if the patient's hemoglobin level is low and if he requires a blood transfusion
- B. To check the level of the patient's tissue perfusion
- C. To measure the effectiveness of the patient's anti-hypertensive medications
- D. To detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develop
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulse oximeter is used to detect the oxygen saturation levels in arterial blood before the onset of hypoxemia symptoms. This device provides essential information about the effectiveness of oxygen transportation to the body's tissues. Choice A is incorrect because a pulse oximeter does not directly measure hemoglobin levels nor determine the need for a blood transfusion. Choice B is incorrect because a pulse oximeter is designed specifically to assess oxygen saturation, not tissue perfusion. Choice C is incorrect because a pulse oximeter is not used to measure the efficacy of anti-hypertensive medications, but rather to monitor oxygen levels in the blood.
2. To follow a healthy diet, a person should be sure that:
- A. 20-35% of the total carbs eaten should be made up of fiber
- B. 45-65% of the total carbs eaten should be made up of fiber
- C. 45-65% of the total fiber eaten should be made up of soluble fiber
- D. 45-65% of the total calories eaten should be made up of carbs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) suggests that 45-65% of total daily calories should come from carbohydrates.
3. The purpose of ECT in clients with depression is to:
- A. Stimulation in the brain to increase brain conduction and counteract depression
- B. Mainly Biologic, increasing the norepinephrine and serotonin level
- C. Creates a temporary brain damage that will increase blood flow to the brain
- D. Involves the conduction of electrical current to the brain to charge the neurons and combat depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following lab values indicates the treatment is effective?
- A. Hct 43%
- B. WBC 8,000/uL
- C. Albumin 4.2 g/dL
- D. Calcium 9.4 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Albumin 4.2 g/dL. Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is a key indicator of nutritional status. In a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), an increase in albumin level indicates that the treatment is effective in providing adequate nutrition support. Hct (hematocrit), WBC (white blood cell count), and calcium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN in this context.
5. When assessing older adult clients for malnutrition at an adult day care center, which risk factors should the nurse consider?
- A. Dental problems
- B. Depression
- C. Both A and B
- D. Ability to prepare meals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Both A and B. Dental problems and depression are both significant risk factors for malnutrition in older adults. Dental problems can lead to difficulty in chewing and swallowing, resulting in reduced food intake. On the other hand, depression can cause changes in appetite and decreased interest in eating, which can also contribute to malnutrition. Although the ability to prepare meals is important, it is not specifically identified as a risk factor for malnutrition within the context of this question. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate answers.
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