Nursing Elites

1. What are the manifestations of nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Dehydration
• B. Uremia
• C. Infection
• D. Low blood lipids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infection is a common manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. This is due to the loss of immunoglobulins in the urine, which weakens the body's immune defenses. Dehydration (Choice A) and uremia (Choice B) can be symptoms of kidney dysfunction but are not specific manifestations of nephrotic syndrome. Low blood lipids (Choice D) is incorrect as nephrotic syndrome typically results in high, not low, blood lipid levels due to the body's attempt to replace lost proteins.

2. An essential nutrient must:

• A. be eaten every day
• B. be obtained by the diet
• C. be water soluble
• D. be eaten at every meal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'be obtained by the diet.' Essential nutrients are those that the body cannot synthesize in sufficient quantities and must therefore be obtained through the diet. Choice A is incorrect because not all essential nutrients need to be consumed daily; the frequency of consumption varies. Choice C is incorrect because not all essential nutrients are water-soluble; they can be water-soluble or fat-soluble. Choice D is incorrect because essential nutrients do not need to be consumed at every meal, but rather need to be included in the overall diet regularly.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to the parent of a toddler about appropriate snacks. Which of the following foods should the nurse include?

• A. Sliced bananas
• B. Raw celery
• C. Peanut butter
• D. Grapes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is sliced bananas. Bananas are a good choice for toddlers as they are easy to chew, rich in potassium, and generally well-tolerated. Raw celery (Choice B) may pose a choking hazard due to its fibrous nature. Peanut butter (Choice C) should be avoided as it can also be a choking hazard and may cause an allergic reaction in some children. Grapes (Choice D) are a choking hazard for toddlers due to their size and shape, so they should be cut into smaller pieces or avoided altogether.

4. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?

• A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
• B. To check for any obvious malignancy
• C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
• D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.

5. What is considered fast breathing in a 13-month-old child if the respiratory rate (RR) exceeds which value?

• A. 40 breaths per minute
• B. 50 breaths per minute
• C. 60 breaths per minute
• D. 30 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric care, a respiratory rate of more than 60 breaths per minute in a child aged 13 months is considered fast breathing, hence option 'C' is correct. Options 'A', 'B', and 'D' are incorrect as they do not meet the specified criteria for fast breathing in a 13-month-old. Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, including monitoring respiratory rates, to ensure that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

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