Nursing Elites

1. A patient with an ileostomy is suffering from frequent diarrhea. The clinician should advise the patient to increase his intake of what food to thicken stool output?

• A. celery
• B. salad greens
• C. potatoes
• D. dried beans and peas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Potatoes are starchy and can help thicken stool output, making them beneficial for patients with an ileostomy experiencing diarrhea.

2. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

• A. Regular Check-ups
• B. Regular Screening
• C. Self-Medication
• D. Immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

3. A client is planning eating strategies with a nurse who has nausea from equilibrium imbalance. Which of the following strategies should the nurse recommend?

• A. Encourage the client to eat, even if nauseated.
• B. Provide low-fat carbohydrates with meals.
• C. Limit fluid intake between meals.
• D. Serve hot foods at mealtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide low-fat carbohydrates with meals. Low-fat carbohydrates are easier to digest and can help manage nausea without overloading the digestive system. Encouraging the client to eat even if nauseated (Choice A) may worsen their symptoms. Limiting fluid intake between meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which can exacerbate nausea. Serving hot foods at mealtime (Choice D) may not necessarily address the underlying issue of equilibrium imbalance causing nausea.

4. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�
• B. Less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m�
• C. Less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m�
• D. Less than 125 mL/min/1.73 m�

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.

5. Causes of acute renal failure include:

• A. chronic renal failure
• B. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
• C. recurrent urinary tract infections
• D. severe injury such as extensive burns

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Severe injuries, like extensive burns, can cause acute renal failure due to shock, reduced blood flow to the kidneys, and tissue damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because chronic renal failure, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, and recurrent urinary tract infections are more likely to contribute to chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.

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