Nursing Elites

1. While working the night shift, a nurse observes a colleague behaving strangely. What is the best course of action?

• A. Ignore the behavior and continue working
• B. Report the behavior to the supervisor
• C. Ask the colleague if everything is okay
• D. Discuss the behavior with other colleagues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse observes a colleague behaving strangely, the best course of action is to report the behavior to the supervisor. Unusual behavior by a healthcare professional could compromise patient safety and should be addressed promptly. Ignoring the behavior (Choice A) could potentially lead to negative outcomes for patients. Asking the colleague directly (Choice C) may not be appropriate if the behavior poses a risk. Discussing the behavior with other colleagues (Choice D) may not directly address the issue and could lead to gossip rather than a resolution.

2. A community nurse is instructing a group of newly licensed nurses about diseases that require airborne precautions. Which of the following diseases should the nurse include?

• A. Rubella
• B. Pertussis
• C. Influenza
• D. Varicella

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Varicella. Varicella (chickenpox) is a disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent its spread. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent transmission of pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Rubella, pertussis, and influenza do not require airborne precautions. Rubella and pertussis require droplet precautions, while influenza requires droplet and contact precautions. Therefore, Varicella is the only disease in the list that necessitates airborne precautions.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has osteomyelitis and a prescription for gentamicin IV every 8 hours. Which of the following serum laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider before administering the gentamicin?

• A. Hematocrit 45%
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL
• D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates potential kidney dysfunction, which is crucial when administering gentamicin as it can be nephrotoxic. Reporting a high creatinine level to the provider is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A (Hematocrit 45%) is within the normal range and not directly related to gentamicin administration. Choice B (Sodium 140 mEq/L) and Choice D (Potassium 4.0 mEq/L) are also within normal limits and do not directly impact the administration of gentamicin.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer the initial dose of ceftriaxone to a client who has endometritis. Which of the following statements by the client should cause the healthcare professional to hold the medication and consult the provider?

• A. I have a severe allergy to amoxicillin
• B. I get sick when I take diuretics
• C. I have a history of hearing problems
• D. I take prednisone for my asthma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe allergy to amoxicillin could indicate a potential cross-reactivity with ceftriaxone, so the medication should be held. Cross-reactivity between penicillins (like amoxicillin) and cephalosporins (like ceftriaxone) is a known concern due to their similar chemical structures. Choices B, C, and D do not directly contraindicate the administration of ceftriaxone for endometritis.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about foods that are included on a clear liquid diet. Which of the following food choices made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Broth
• C. Popsicle
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Yogurt. Yogurt is not part of a clear liquid diet. A clear liquid diet includes transparent or translucent liquids such as gelatin, broth, and popsicles. Yogurt is a thicker consistency and contains solid particles, making it inappropriate for a clear liquid diet. Choices A, B, and C are suitable options for a client following a clear liquid diet.

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