ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. Which of the following foods is a good source of protein?
- A. Chicken
- B. Tofu
- C. Cheddar cheese
- D. Almonds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is indeed a good source of protein, providing a significant amount per serving. While chicken and tofu are also high in protein, cheddar cheese can be a beneficial source, especially for individuals looking for non-meat options. Almonds, while nutritious, are not as high in protein compared to the other options listed.
2. What are the key considerations when administering opioid analgesics to a patient in pain?
- A. Monitoring for respiratory depression
- B. Administering opioid antagonist if needed
- C. Assessing respiratory rate and pain level before administration
- D. Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct key consideration when administering opioid analgesics to a patient in pain is monitoring for respiratory depression. Opioids can lead to respiratory depression, making it crucial to carefully monitor the patient's breathing. Administering an opioid antagonist is not a key consideration during the administration of opioids; it is used to reverse opioid effects in cases of overdose, not as a routine practice. Assessing respiratory rate and pain level before administration is important but not the key consideration compared to monitoring for respiratory depression. Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness is also essential but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression when administering opioids.
3. A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client pulseless. The client's living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer emergency medications without performing CPR
- B. Begin CPR
- C. Call the provider for a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order
- D. Respect the client's wishes, and do not attempt CPR
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. In the absence of a written DNR order by the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally obligated to initiate CPR to attempt to save the client's life. Administering emergency medications without CPR (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for life-saving measures. Calling the provider for a DNR order (Choice C) may cause a delay in providing necessary resuscitative measures. Respecting the client's wishes and not attempting CPR (Choice D) goes against the nurse's duty to provide immediate life-saving interventions in the absence of a DNR order.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Report any urine output greater than 30 mL/hr.
- B. Bruising on the arms and legs.
- C. Positive Trousseau's sign.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bruising on the arms and legs is a sign of bleeding, which is a serious complication of heparin therapy and should be reported immediately to the provider. Option A is incorrect as urine output greater than 30 mL/hr is a normal finding. Option C, positive Trousseau's sign, is associated with hypocalcemia, not heparin therapy. Option D, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range and does not indicate a complication of heparin therapy.
5. A patient is admitted with signs of stroke. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate as the priority?
- A. CT scan
- B. MRI
- C. X-ray
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CT scan is the priority diagnostic test to identify and confirm the location and severity of a stroke.
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