Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client with chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. A client with a fever of 100°F
• C. A client scheduled for surgery
• D. A client with stable vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

2. A nurse at a local health department is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with listeriosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Provide the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) and Prevention with the client's information
• B. Inform the client that they are required to have health department staff directly observe their treatment
• C. Determine whether the condition is reportable under state requirements
• D. Find out whether the condition is endemic in the client's neighborhood

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Determine whether the condition is reportable under state requirements.' Listeriosis is a reportable disease, meaning healthcare providers are legally required to report cases to public health authorities. By checking the state requirements for reportable diseases, the nurse ensures compliance with public health regulations. Choice A is incorrect because providing the client's information to the CDC is not the immediate action needed. Choice B is incorrect as direct observation of treatment is not a standard procedure for listeriosis. Choice D is also incorrect as determining if the condition is endemic in the client's neighborhood is not the primary concern when managing a diagnosed case of listeriosis.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?

• A. Sheepskin heel pad
• B. Footboard
• C. Trochanter roll
• D. Abduction pillow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.

4. A client who reports insomnia is being taught by a nurse about promoting rest and sleep. Which statement should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?

• A. I will walk briskly for 30 minutes before bedtime
• B. I will have a cup of hot cocoa immediately before bedtime
• C. I will no longer have a glass of wine before bedtime
• D. I will do my muscle relaxation techniques each afternoon

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because avoiding alcohol before bedtime can help promote better sleep. Choice A is incorrect as vigorous exercise close to bedtime can actually hinder sleep. Choice B is also incorrect as consuming beverages with caffeine or sugar close to bedtime can disrupt sleep. Choice D, while a good practice, does not directly address the issue of avoiding alcohol before bedtime to improve sleep quality.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

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