ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client with chest pain and shortness of breath
- B. A client with a fever of 100°F
- C. A client scheduled for surgery
- D. A client with stable vital signs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.
2. What are the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure, and how do they differ from right-sided heart failure?
- A. Jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex
- B. Hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema
- C. Dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea
- D. Pulmonary congestion and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure include pulmonary symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea. However, left-sided heart failure can also manifest as jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex due to the backflow of blood into the pulmonary circulation. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema. Choice B is incorrect as it presents manifestations of right-sided heart failure. Choice C includes symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Choice D describes pulmonary congestion, which is more specific to left-sided heart failure, but it does not encompass the full range of clinical manifestations for left-sided heart failure.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab results of a client with liver disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Elevated bilirubin levels
- B. Low albumin levels
- C. Elevated ammonia levels
- D. Low hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated ammonia levels in a client with liver disease can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can cause cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice A) are common in liver disease but do not require immediate intervention. Low albumin levels (Choice B) and low hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are also common in liver disease but do not pose an immediate threat compared to elevated ammonia levels.
4. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
- B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
- C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
- D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.
5. If a nurse is uncomfortable documenting a verbal prescription, what should the nurse do?
- A. Document the prescription without seeking clarification.
- B. Clarify the verbal prescription with the healthcare provider.
- C. Refuse to document the prescription.
- D. Speak with the client's family to clarify the situation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse is uncomfortable documenting a verbal prescription, the best course of action is to clarify the prescription with the healthcare provider. This is crucial to ensure that the information is accurate and to provide safe and appropriate care. Option A is incorrect because blindly documenting without seeking clarification can lead to errors. Option C is incorrect as refusing to document the prescription altogether is not in the best interest of the patient. Option D is also incorrect as speaking with the client's family is not the appropriate step to clarify a verbal prescription; the healthcare provider should be the primary source for this clarification.
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