ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client with chest pain and shortness of breath
- B. A client with a fever of 100°F
- C. A client scheduled for surgery
- D. A client with stable vital signs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.
2. A community nurse is instructing a group of newly licensed nurses about diseases that require airborne precautions. Which of the following diseases should the nurse include?
- A. Rubella
- B. Pertussis
- C. Influenza
- D. Varicella
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Varicella. Varicella (chickenpox) is a disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent its spread. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent transmission of pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Rubella, pertussis, and influenza do not require airborne precautions. Rubella and pertussis require droplet precautions, while influenza requires droplet and contact precautions. Therefore, Varicella is the only disease in the list that necessitates airborne precautions.
3. When a nurse is assigned to float to another unit and feels unprepared, what is the most appropriate course of action?
- A. Refusing to take the assignment.
- B. Requesting help and clarification from the charge nurse.
- C. Completing the assignment and documenting the concerns later.
- D. Filing a formal complaint with hospital administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse is assigned to float to another unit and feels unprepared, the most appropriate course of action is to request help and clarification from the charge nurse. This allows the nurse to address any concerns, seek guidance, and ensure safe patient care. Refusing the assignment (Choice A) is not a constructive approach as it may leave the unit short-staffed and compromise patient safety. Completing the assignment and documenting concerns later (Choice C) is not recommended as it delays addressing the issues at hand. Filing a formal complaint with hospital administration (Choice D) should be considered only after attempting to resolve the issue at the unit level first.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned from surgery. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor the patient's pain level.
- B. Assess the patient's vital signs.
- C. Assess the surgical incision site.
- D. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's vital signs. Assessing vital signs is crucial as it helps to detect any early signs of complications such as bleeding, shock, or changes in oxygenation. Monitoring the patient's pain level (Choice A) is important but assessing vital signs takes precedence. While assessing the surgical incision site (Choice C) is essential, ensuring the patient's physiological stability through vital sign assessment is the priority. Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) may be necessary for comfort but does not address the immediate need to assess the patient's condition post-surgery.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which of the following lab results should be reviewed before administering the medication?
- A. Potassium level
- B. Calcium level
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium level. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can potentiate the effects of low potassium levels, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to review the patient's potassium level before administering digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because calcium level, hemoglobin level, and white blood cell count are not directly related to the risk of digoxin toxicity.
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