Nursing Elites

1. A client with HIV-1 starting therapy with ritonavir and zidovudine asks why both medications are necessary. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Taking two medications ensures a faster recovery.
• B. The medications work best together to improve your immune system.
• C. Taking the 2 medications together keeps you from becoming resistant to either of them.
• D. These medications target different parts of the virus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking two medications together helps prevent the development of drug resistance in HIV treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of combination therapy is not necessarily a faster recovery. Choice B is incorrect as the main purpose of combining medications in HIV treatment is to prevent resistance rather than improving the immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while it is true that the medications may target different parts of the virus, the main reason for using both together is to prevent resistance.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Decrease the client's IV fluids
• B. Reposition the client
• C. Administer oxygen by face mask
• D. Document the findings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering oxygen by face mask is the priority intervention when late decelerations are observed in the fetal heart rate. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and administering oxygen helps to improve fetal oxygenation. Repositioning the client may also be necessary to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, but providing oxygen takes precedence to enhance fetal oxygenation. Decreasing IV fluids may not directly address the underlying issue leading to late decelerations. Documenting the findings is important but should not be the first action taken when managing late decelerations.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

4. The patient has the nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility related to pain in the left shoulder. Which priority action will the nurse take?

• A. Assist the patient with comfort measures.
• B. Keep the patient as mobile as possible.
• C. Encourage the patient to perform ROM.
• D. Encourage the patient to do self-care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Assist the patient with comfort measures.' When a patient is experiencing impaired physical mobility due to pain, the priority action is to provide comfort measures to help manage the pain. By addressing the pain, the patient may then feel more comfortable moving and engaging in mobility exercises. Option B, 'Keep the patient as mobile as possible,' could exacerbate the pain and should not be the initial action. While encouraging range of motion (ROM) exercises (Option C) and self-care (Option D) are important aspects of care, addressing pain and comfort should take precedence in this scenario.

5. How does a healthcare professional assess a patient's fluid balance, and what signs indicate fluid overload?

• A. Checking lung sounds for crackles
• B. Checking for signs of orthopnea
• C. Monitoring intake and output, and checking for edema
• D. Measuring daily weight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring intake and output and checking for edema. Monitoring intake and output provides information about fluid balance in the body, while checking for edema helps assess for fluid overload. Lung sounds and signs of orthopnea are more indicative of respiratory issues rather than fluid balance. Daily weight measurement is useful to assess fluid status, but it alone may not provide a comprehensive evaluation of fluid balance.

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