Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

2. How should a healthcare provider respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication?

• A. Reassure the patient that side effects are rare.
• B. Discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient.
• C. Encourage the patient to speak to the pharmacist.
• D. Refer the patient to another healthcare provider for information.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient expresses concerns about medication side effects, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient. This approach helps the patient make an informed decision about their treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns by reassuring them that side effects are rare may not address the patient's specific worries. Choice C, while pharmacists can provide valuable information, the primary responsibility lies with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as referring the patient to another healthcare provider may disrupt continuity of care and not address the patient's concerns effectively.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?

• A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
• B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
• C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
• D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.

4. The nurse is admitting a patient with an infectious disease process. Which question will be most appropriate for a nurse to ask about the patient's susceptibility to this infectious process?

• A. Do you have any children living in your home?
• B. Do you have a spouse?
• C. Do you have a chronic disease?
• D. Do you have any religious beliefs that will influence your care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do you have a chronic disease?' Patients with chronic diseases are more susceptible to infections due to factors like general debilitation and nutritional impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because having children in the home, having a spouse, or religious beliefs do not directly impact susceptibility to infectious diseases.

5. A nurse suspects a colleague of diverting narcotics. What is the nurse's first course of action?

• A. Confront the colleague directly about the suspicion.
• B. Report the suspicion to the nurse manager.
• C. Ignore the situation unless there is clear evidence.
• D. Keep a record of the colleague's actions for future reference.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first course of action for a nurse suspecting a colleague of diverting narcotics is to report the suspicion to the nurse manager. Confronting the colleague directly may not be safe and could compromise the investigation. Ignoring the situation is not appropriate as it can pose risks to patient safety. Keeping a record of the colleague's actions is not the primary action to take when drug diversion is suspected; reporting to the nurse manager is crucial for proper investigation and ensuring patient safety.

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