Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who will start using fluticasone via MDI twice daily, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your heart rate before each dose.
• B. Inspect your mouth for lesions daily.
• C. Do not use this medication to relieve an acute attack.
• D. Do not skip the morning dose even if symptom-free.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is crucial for clients using inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone to inspect their mouths daily for signs of oral thrush, a common side effect. Checking the mouth can help identify lesions early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent worsening of the condition. Monitoring heart rate is not specifically required for this medication. Fluticasone is a maintenance medication used to manage COPD, not to relieve acute attacks. Skipping doses, especially in the morning, can lead to inadequate control of COPD symptoms.

2. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?

• A. Pain severity
• B. Wound drainage
• C. Tissue integrity
• D. Airway patency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.

3. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

4. During an assessment, a client with a long history of smoking and suspected laryngeal cancer will most likely report which early manifestation?

• A. Dysphagia
• B. Hoarseness
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with laryngeal cancer, hoarseness is often one of the earliest manifestations due to vocal cord involvement. The irritation and inflammation caused by the tumor affect the vocal cords, leading to changes in voice quality. Dysphagia (choice A) typically occurs later as the tumor grows and interferes with swallowing. Dyspnea (choice C) and weight loss (choice D) may occur as the cancer progresses, but hoarseness is usually among the first signs to manifest in laryngeal cancer.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat 3 balanced meals each day.
• B. Limit fluid intake with meals.
• C. Reduce sodium intake.
• D. Take a bronchodilator 1 hour before eating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, limiting fluid intake with meals can help reduce the risk of bloating and feeling too full, which can make breathing more difficult due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. It is important to encourage a balanced diet with appropriate fluid intake between meals to maintain hydration and proper nutrition. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to dietary recommendations for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

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