a nurse on a medical surgical unit is performing an admission assessment of a client who has copd with emphysema the client reports that he has a freq
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. During an admission assessment of a client with COPD and emphysema complaining of a frequent productive cough and shortness of breath, what assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: COPD and emphysema are chronic respiratory conditions that can lead to changes in the shape of the chest. In clients with COPD, the anteroposterior diameter of the chest often increases, giving a barrel chest appearance. This change in chest shape is due to hyperinflation of the lungs and is a common physical finding in clients with COPD and emphysema. The other options are not typically associated with COPD and emphysema. Respiratory alkalosis is not a common finding in these clients. An oxygen saturation level of 96% is within the normal range and does not specifically relate to COPD. Petechiae on the chest are not typically associated with COPD or emphysema.

2. What should the nurse prioritize when monitoring an older adult client immediately following a bronchoscopy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a bronchoscopy, the priority for the nurse is to confirm the gag reflex in the older adult client. This is crucial to ensure that the client's airway is protected and free from any obstruction or aspiration. Monitoring the gag reflex helps in preventing complications such as aspiration pneumonia. While auscultating breath sounds, observing for confusion, and measuring blood pressure are important assessments, confirming the gag reflex takes precedence in this situation to maintain airway patency and prevent potential respiratory complications.

3. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

4. During an assessment, a client with a long history of smoking and suspected laryngeal cancer will most likely report which early manifestation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with laryngeal cancer, hoarseness is often one of the earliest manifestations due to vocal cord involvement. The irritation and inflammation caused by the tumor affect the vocal cords, leading to changes in voice quality. Dysphagia (choice A) typically occurs later as the tumor grows and interferes with swallowing. Dyspnea (choice C) and weight loss (choice D) may occur as the cancer progresses, but hoarseness is usually among the first signs to manifest in laryngeal cancer.

5. While caring for a client using O2 in the hospital, what assessment finding indicates that goals for a priority diagnosis are being met?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is using oxygen, there is a risk for impaired skin integrity due to pressure from tubing. Intact skin behind the ears suggests that the client is not experiencing skin breakdown, meeting the goals for this diagnosis. The client's nutrition, understanding of oxygen therapy, and weight stability are important but do not directly relate to the priority diagnosis of skin integrity in this context.

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