ATI RN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A client is vomiting. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Provide the client with an emesis basin
- B. Notify housekeeping
- C. Prevent the client from aspirating
- D. Administer an antiemetic to the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is vomiting, the priority action for the nurse is to prevent the client from aspirating. Aspiration can lead to serious respiratory complications. Providing the client with an emesis basin can be helpful but preventing aspiration takes precedence. Notifying housekeeping and administering an antiemetic are secondary actions that can be addressed once the client's safety is ensured.
2. A client who experienced a femur fracture 8 hr ago now reports sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Provide high-flow oxygen.
- B. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
- C. Administer an IV vasopressor medication.
- D. Monitor the client for headache.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the priority action is to provide high-flow oxygen to the client. Sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and stabilizes the client's condition. Checking for Chvostek's sign, administering IV vasopressors, or monitoring for a headache are not the immediate priorities in this critical situation.
3. A client is being admitted to the surgical unit from the PACU following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Bowel sounds
- B. Surgical dressing
- C. Temperature
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority assessment for a client being admitted to the surgical unit following a cholecystectomy is oxygen saturation. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation, especially after surgery. Hypoxia can have serious consequences and needs to be promptly addressed. While assessing bowel sounds, surgical dressing, and temperature are important, oxygen saturation takes precedence in this situation.
4. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
- B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
- C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
- D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
- B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Use of accessory muscles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.
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