Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

2. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires care planning. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan?

• A. Administer low-flow oxygen continuously via nasal cannula.
• B. Encourage oral intake of at least 3,000 mL of fluids per day.
• C. Offer high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods frequently.
• D. Place in a prone position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), placing the client in a prone position helps improve ventilation-perfusion matching and oxygenation. This position can optimize lung function and is a beneficial intervention for clients with ARDS. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula, encouraging oral intake of excess fluids, or offering high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods are not primary interventions for ARDS and may not directly address the respiratory distress experienced by the client.

3. A nurse in an emergency room is caring for a client who sustained partial-thickness burns to both lower legs, chest, face, and both forearms. Which of the following is the priority action the nurse should take?

• A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• B. Inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries.
• C. Administer intravenous pain medication.
• D. Draw blood for a complete blood cell (CBC) count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with burns, especially burns to the face and chest, the priority action for the nurse is to inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries. Inhalation injuries can be life-threatening and may not be immediately apparent. Identifying these injuries early allows for prompt intervention and can significantly impact the client's outcomes. While other actions such as pain management and blood tests are important, assessing for inhalation injuries takes precedence due to its critical nature.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of this disease?

• A. Asymmetrical joint involvement
• B. Heberden's nodes
• C. Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes
• D. Pain that worsens with activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis. This prolonged morning stiffness is typically a distinguishing feature of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other types of arthritis, making it the most characteristic assessment finding for this disease.

5. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts about 3-5 minutes
• D. Relieved by taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pain of an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. It typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI occurs without a known cause such as exertion.

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