Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

2. A healthcare provider collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the healthcare provider include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. I ensured the client did not use bronchodilator medication within the specified timeframe.
• B. The client is prepared to undergo the examination in radiology.
• C. Physical therapy has approved the client for treadmill exercise.
• D. I instructed the client not to smoke for the required duration before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For accurate pulmonary function tests (PFTs), it is essential to communicate that the client did not use bronchodilators within the specified timeframe, did not smoke for the required duration before the test, and can comply with different breathing maneuvers. The use of a treadmill is not part of the PFT procedure and is unrelated to the testing process. Therefore, communicating about the client's ability to run on a treadmill is not relevant to the pulmonary function tests being conducted by the respiratory therapist.

3. How can a nurse manager best improve hand-off communication among the staff? (SATA)

• A. Attending hand-off rounds to coach and mentor.
• B. Conducting audits of staff using a new template.
• C. Creating a template of topics to include in the report.
• D. Utilizing the SHARE model as a tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The SHARE model is a valuable tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication. By utilizing this model, the nurse manager can ensure consistency and clarity in hand-off communication among the staff. While attending hand-off rounds to coach and mentor, conducting audits using a new template, and creating a template of topics to include in the report can all be beneficial actions, the most effective approach to achieve the goal of improving hand-off communication is by implementing a standardized tool like the SHARE model.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the arterial blood gas results for a client in the ICU who has kidney failure and determines the client has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Widened QRS complexes
• B. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
• C. Bounding peripheral pulses
• D. Warm, flushed skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is a condition characterized by increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, resulting in acidosis. One of the potential consequences of respiratory acidosis is the development of electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to cardiac conduction abnormalities, manifested as widened QRS complexes on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Therefore, in a client with respiratory acidosis, the healthcare professional should expect to find widened QRS complexes as a result of the associated hyperkalemia.

5. A client had an inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse notes the client's cardiac rhythm as shown below. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Assess the client's blood pressure and level of consciousness.
• B. Call the health care provider or the Rapid Response Team.
• C. Obtain a permit for an emergency temporary pacemaker insertion.
• D. Prepare to administer antidysrhythmic medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ECG strip shows sinus bradycardia, which is common in clients with an inferior wall MI. This rhythm can lead to decreased perfusion due to bradycardia and blocks. The most crucial initial action for the nurse is to assess the client's hemodynamic status, including blood pressure and level of consciousness. This assessment will help determine the immediate needs of the client. Calling the health care provider or the Rapid Response Team, obtaining a permit for a pacemaker insertion, or preparing to administer antidysrhythmic medication may be necessary based on the assessment findings, but the priority is to evaluate the client's current condition first.

Similar Questions