ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A client is moving to a new state and needs to find a new doctor and hospital there. What advice by the nurse is best?
- A. Ask the hospitals there about standard nurse-client ratios.
- B. Choose the hospital that has the newest technology.
- C. Find a hospital that is accredited by The Joint Commission.
- D. Use a facility affiliated with a medical or nursing school.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choosing a hospital accredited by The Joint Commission (TJC) or another accrediting body is the best advice as it ensures a focus on safety and quality standards.
2. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
- B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
- C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
- D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.
3. A client who received benzocaine spray before a recent bronchoscopy presents with continuous cyanosis despite oxygen therapy. What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Administer albuterol treatment.
- B. Notify Rapid Response Team.
- C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses.
- D. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cyanosis unresponsive to oxygen therapy suggests methemoglobinemia, an adverse effect of benzocaine spray. Methemoglobinemia can lead to death if not managed promptly. The nurse should notify the Rapid Response Team to provide immediate advanced care. Administering albuterol would not address the underlying cause of cyanosis. Assessing peripheral pulses and obtaining cultures are not the priority as they do not directly address the urgent need to manage methemoglobinemia.
4. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?
- A. Pain severity
- B. Wound drainage
- C. Tissue integrity
- D. Airway patency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.
5. A healthcare provider suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic. Which of the following should be the healthcare provider's priority intervention?
- A. Insert an IV line
- B. Count the respiratory rate
- C. Administer oxygen
- D. Prepare equipment for intubation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When suspecting anaphylaxis, the priority intervention is to assess the client's respiratory status by counting the respiratory rate. Respiratory distress is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis, and prompt recognition and management are crucial. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence to determine the severity of the reaction and the need for immediate intervention. Inserting an IV line and preparing for intubation are important interventions in managing anaphylaxis but are secondary to ensuring adequate ventilation.
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