a nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent iv bolus available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 ml of dextrose 5 in water d5w to infuse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Thus, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect because it miscalculates the flow rate. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min, are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the flow rate based on the given information.

2. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach. This medication is best absorbed when taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Instructing the client to take it with milk, before bedtime, or with antacids can decrease its absorption and effectiveness. Taking it with milk can reduce the absorption of iron due to the calcium in milk. Taking it before bedtime is not necessary and may cause gastrointestinal upset. Taking it with antacids can interfere with the absorption of iron.

3. What is a common side effect that typically occurs with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine as a result of increased vasodilation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Headache is a common side effect associated with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine due to its vasodilatory properties. The vasodilation caused by Nitroglycerine leads to relaxation of blood vessels, including those in the head, which can result in headaches. This side effect is considered normal and is often transient, diminishing with continued use of the medication.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

5. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which preexisting condition can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine can produce psychological effects like hallucinations. Patients with schizophrenia may be more prone to experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms when exposed to Ketamine due to its potential to worsen psychotic symptoms. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for the use of Ketamine.

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