Nursing Elites

1. What should you monitor when administering Clopidogrel to a patient?

• A. Signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
• B. Bleeding during therapy
• C. CBC with differential and platelet count
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Clopidogrel, it is crucial to monitor for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, bleeding during therapy, and changes in CBC with differential and platelet count. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a rare but serious condition associated with Clopidogrel use, characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurological symptoms, fever, and renal dysfunction. Monitoring for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring for bleeding helps to assess the risk of hemorrhagic events, a known side effect of Clopidogrel. Additionally, regular monitoring of CBC with differential and platelet count is necessary to evaluate the drug's impact on blood cell counts and detect any abnormalities that may require intervention. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure patient safety and appropriate management during Clopidogrel therapy.

2. A nurse is providing teaching for a male client who has Schizophrenia and is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Add extra snacks to your diet to prevent weight loss.
• B. Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.
• C. You may begin to have mild seizures while taking this medication.
• D. This medication is likely to increase your libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.' Gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea can occur due to an increase in prolactin levels while taking risperidone. The client should inform the provider if these manifestations occur. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Adding extra snacks to the diet to prevent weight loss is not a specific instruction related to risperidone. Seizures are not a common side effect of risperidone, so the statement about mild seizures is inaccurate. Risperidone is more likely to cause sexual side effects like erectile dysfunction rather than increasing libido, making choice D incorrect.

3. A client has a new prescription for Nitrofurantoin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Increase your intake of vitamin C.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nitrofurantoin should be taken with food to enhance absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Taking it with a meal or a snack can help minimize stomach upset. Instructing the client to take the medication with food ensures optimal effectiveness and tolerability of the drug. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between Nitrofurantoin and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as there is no requirement to take Nitrofurantoin at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing vitamin C intake is not necessary or relevant to taking Nitrofurantoin.

4. What is an expected outcome for Lithium use in patients with bipolar disorder?

• A. Reduced risk of myocardial infarction
• B. Reduced risk of GI ulcers
• C. Decrease in respiratory distress
• D. Decreased incidence of acute manic episodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased incidence of acute manic episodes. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder by helping to stabilize mood and reduce the intensity and frequency of manic episodes. This leads to better overall management of the disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lithium is not known to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction, GI ulcers, or respiratory distress in patients with bipolar disorder.

5. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.

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