ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client is taking atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. Headache
- B. Nausea
- C. Muscle pain
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle pain should be reported immediately as it can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a severe adverse effect of atorvastatin. Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by muscle pain, weakness, and can lead to serious complications such as kidney damage, making it crucial for the nurse to notify the provider promptly. Headache, nausea, and diarrhea are common side effects of atorvastatin and do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which statement by the client indicates an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. I can walk a mile a day.
- B. I've had a backache for several days.
- C. I am urinating more frequently.
- D. I feel nauseated and have no appetite.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nausea and loss of appetite are common early signs of digoxin toxicity, indicating an adverse effect of the medication. These symptoms should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management.
3. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
- C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
4. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?
- A. Headache
- B. Constipation
- C. Epistaxis
- D. Dysuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.
5. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Decreased fasting blood glucose
- C. Decreased hemoglobin A1C
- D. Decreased polyuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.
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