which of the following is not an opioid or nsaid
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct answer as it is not classified as an opioid or NSAID. Acetaminophen is considered a non-opioid analgesic, which means it works by a different mechanism than opioids and NSAIDs to relieve pain and reduce fever. Morphine, hydromorphone, and ibuprofen, on the other hand, are classified as opioids or NSAIDs. Morphine and hydromorphone are opioids, while ibuprofen is an NSAID (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug), all of which work through different mechanisms compared to acetaminophen.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

3. A client is receiving Enoxaparin for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enoxaparin, a medication used for preventing deep vein thrombosis, should be administered into the subcutaneous tissue, typically in the abdomen. Administering the medication intramuscularly (Choice B) or into the deltoid muscle (Choice D) is incorrect because Enoxaparin is specifically formulated for subcutaneous administration. Massaging the injection site after administration (Choice A) is contraindicated as it may lead to tissue damage and affect the absorption of the medication. Therefore, the correct action is to administer the medication into the subcutaneous tissue as directed.

4. When educating a client with early Parkinson's disease about pramipexole, what adverse effect should the nurse advise the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations, especially within 9 months of starting the medication, and may necessitate discontinuation. Hallucinations are a serious adverse effect that the client should be aware of and report promptly to their healthcare provider for evaluation and management. Increased salivation (choice B), diarrhea (choice C), and discoloration of urine (choice D) are not common adverse effects associated with pramipexole and are not typically emphasized in client education for this medication.

5. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

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