Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?

• A. Morphine
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Hydromorphone
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct answer as it is not classified as an opioid or NSAID. Acetaminophen is considered a non-opioid analgesic, which means it works by a different mechanism than opioids and NSAIDs to relieve pain and reduce fever. Morphine, hydromorphone, and ibuprofen, on the other hand, are classified as opioids or NSAIDs. Morphine and hydromorphone are opioids, while ibuprofen is an NSAID (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug), all of which work through different mechanisms compared to acetaminophen.

2. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.

3. When a client is starting long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma, what adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which can lead to fluid retention. Monitoring weight changes is important as it helps in early identification of this adverse effect, enabling timely interventions to manage it. Choice B, nervousness, is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Bradycardia (Choice C) is unlikely as prednisone usually causes tachycardia or increased heart rate. Constipation (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone compared to weight gain.

4. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Ketamine
• B. Naltrexone
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Fluvoxamine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication rapidly over 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client for hypertension during infusion.
• C. Administer a test dose before the full dose.
• D. Monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

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