which of the following is not an opioid or nsaid
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct answer as it is not classified as an opioid or NSAID. Acetaminophen is considered a non-opioid analgesic, which means it works by a different mechanism than opioids and NSAIDs to relieve pain and reduce fever. Morphine, hydromorphone, and ibuprofen, on the other hand, are classified as opioids or NSAIDs. Morphine and hydromorphone are opioids, while ibuprofen is an NSAID (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug), all of which work through different mechanisms compared to acetaminophen.

2. A client has a new prescription for colchicine to treat gout. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for muscle pain is crucial when taking colchicine because it can lead to rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition characterized by muscle breakdown. This adverse effect needs prompt identification to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking colchicine with food, experiencing increased bruising, or increasing grapefruit juice intake are not relevant instructions for a client prescribed colchicine for gout.

3. Which drug is the antidote for Alprazolam?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Alprazolam. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that works by competitively inhibiting the actions of benzodiazepines at the receptor site, effectively reversing their sedative and other effects. Physostigmine is not used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose and can have significant side effects. Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not benzodiazepines like Alprazolam. Acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose, not benzodiazepines like Alprazolam.

4. When providing teaching to a client with a prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Hydrochlorothiazide is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance, potentially causing dehydration. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. Therefore, it is essential for the client to be vigilant in recognizing these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Hydrochlorothiazide at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to its effects or side effects. Avoiding foods high in potassium may be necessary for some medications, but it is not the primary concern with Hydrochlorothiazide. Taking this medication on an empty stomach is not a requirement and may vary depending on individual preferences or healthcare provider instructions.

5. A healthcare provider in a clinic is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, particularly in older clients taking Digoxin. Hypokalemia potentiates the effects of Digoxin, making the heart more sensitive to its toxic effects. Monitoring and correcting electrolyte imbalances, especially low potassium levels, are crucial to prevent adverse effects of digoxin therapy. Calcium levels do not directly influence digoxin toxicity, so choices A and B are incorrect. High potassium levels, as in choice D, are less likely to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity compared to low potassium levels.

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