ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Increased urination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.
2. A client has a new prescription for Nevirapine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Take this medication with food to increase absorption.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in teaching the client about Nevirapine, an NNRTI, is to take the medication with food to improve gastrointestinal tolerance and prevent nausea. While absorption is not significantly affected by food, taking it with meals can help reduce adverse gastrointestinal effects. Choice A is incorrect because Nevirapine should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is generally true for most medications but is not specific to Nevirapine. Choice D is a good practice for medication adherence but is not specific to the administration requirements of Nevirapine.
3. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's vital signs.
- B. Request a consult with a dietitian.
- C. Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.
- D. Request an order for an antiemetic.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.
4. What should you monitor when administering Clopidogrel to a patient?
- A. Signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
- B. Bleeding during therapy
- C. CBC with differential and platelet count
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering Clopidogrel, it is crucial to monitor for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, bleeding during therapy, and changes in CBC with differential and platelet count. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a rare but serious condition associated with Clopidogrel use, characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurological symptoms, fever, and renal dysfunction. Monitoring for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring for bleeding helps to assess the risk of hemorrhagic events, a known side effect of Clopidogrel. Additionally, regular monitoring of CBC with differential and platelet count is necessary to evaluate the drug's impact on blood cell counts and detect any abnormalities that may require intervention. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure patient safety and appropriate management during Clopidogrel therapy.
5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Acetaminophen
- D. Ranitidine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen (Choice C). Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking Warfarin. It can potentiate the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Vitamin K (Choice A) is actually used to reverse the effects of Warfarin in case of over-anticoagulation, so it does not increase the risk of bleeding. Calcium carbonate (Choice B) and Ranitidine (Choice D) do not significantly interact with Warfarin to increase the risk of bleeding.
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