Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer blood to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's identification bracelet.
• B. Obtain the client's vital signs.
• C. Initiate the transfusion slowly over the first 15 minutes.
• D. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor first before administering blood. This is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Checking the client's identification bracelet (Choice A) is important but should come after verifying blood type. Obtaining vital signs (Choice B) and initiating the transfusion slowly (Choice C) are important steps but verifying blood type is the priority to ensure safe blood administration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• B. Heart rate of 90/min
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A urine output of 30 mL/hr is significantly low and indicates possible renal impairment or inadequate perfusion to the kidneys, which are critical for postoperative recovery. In this situation, decreased urine output could lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, affecting the client's overall condition. The nurse should report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a normal finding in the early postoperative period and does not typically warrant immediate concern. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range and may be expected in a postoperative client due to the stress response. A temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in isolation postoperatively.

3. A client in end-stage osteoporosis is reporting severe pain, with a respiratory rate of 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be the highest priority to administer to the client?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe pain like the one described, the priority medication to administer is a potent analgesic like hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is a strong opioid pain medication that can effectively manage severe pain. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not a pain medication. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is contraindicated in end-stage renal disease due to its potential to cause kidney damage. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

4. A nurse is providing care for a client who is in the advanced stage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which of the following referrals is the nurse's priority?

• A. Psychologist
• B. Social worker
• C. Occupational therapist
• D. Speech-language pathologist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the advanced stage of ALS, clients often experience swallowing difficulties, known as dysphagia. A speech-language pathologist specializes in assessing and managing these swallowing problems, making them the nurse's priority referral in this case. A psychologist primarily focuses on mental health and emotional well-being, which may not be the most critical issue at this stage. Social workers assist with social support and resources, while occupational therapists help with activities of daily living and mobility, which are important but not the priority when dysphagia is a concern.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Cough with frothy sputum.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Dependent edema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jugular vein distention. In left-sided heart failure, the left ventricle fails to efficiently pump blood to the body, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation. This increased pressure can lead to symptoms like jugular vein distention, as blood backs up in the pulmonary circulation and causes congestion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, cough with frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema which can occur in left-sided heart failure but is not as specific as jugular vein distention, and dependent edema is also more indicative of right-sided heart failure due to fluid retention and increased venous pressure in the systemic circulation.

Similar Questions