a nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride iv to a client who has hypokalemia which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr. This slow infusion rate is crucial to prevent the development of hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Option A is incorrect because giving the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes can lead to adverse effects. Option B is incorrect as potassium chloride does not necessarily need to be diluted before administration in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as administering the medication undiluted can also increase the risk of hyperkalemia.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

4. A client practicing Orthodox Judaism informs the nurse they are observing the Passover holiday. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism follow dietary restrictions that include consuming unleavened bread. This symbolizes the haste with which the Israelites left Egypt and the lack of time for bread to rise. Providing chicken with cream sauce (Choice A) is not aligned with Passover dietary restrictions. Avoiding serving fish with fins and scales (Choice B) is a general dietary law in Judaism but not specific to Passover. Similarly, avoiding foods containing lamb (Choice D) is not a specific requirement during Passover.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to hold their breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication allows it to reach deeper into the lungs for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because taking one puff every 5 minutes may lead to overuse of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler for only 2 seconds may not provide adequate mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because exhaling forcefully after each puff may reduce the amount of medication that reaches the lungs.

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