ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Give the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes.
- B. Dilute the medication before administration.
- C. Infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr.
- D. Administer the medication undiluted.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr. This slow infusion rate is crucial to prevent the development of hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Option A is incorrect because giving the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes can lead to adverse effects. Option B is incorrect as potassium chloride does not necessarily need to be diluted before administration in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as administering the medication undiluted can also increase the risk of hyperkalemia.
2. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer glucagon
- B. Provide oral glucose
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Monitor blood sugar levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing oral glucose is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia. Oral glucose helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, making it the preferred treatment for mild hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon (Choice A) is usually reserved for severe cases when the patient cannot take anything by mouth. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice D) is important but providing glucose is the immediate priority to treat hypoglycemia.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Crackles in the lung bases
- C. Dependent edema
- D. Productive cough
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dependent edema is a common finding in clients with pneumonia due to fluid retention and decreased mobility. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia. Crackles in the lung bases (Choice B) are more commonly heard in conditions like heart failure or pulmonary edema. A productive cough (Choice D) can be seen in pneumonia but is not as specific as dependent edema.
5. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- B. Check the client's urinary output.
- C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
- D. Assess the client's pain level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.
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