a nurse working in a rehabilitation facility is developing a discharge plan for a client who has left sided hemiplegia which of the following actions
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse working in a rehabilitation facility is developing a discharge plan for a client who has left-sided hemiplegia. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ensure that the client has a referral for physical therapy.' For a client with left-sided hemiplegia, physical therapy is crucial in restoring function and mobility. It is the nurse's priority to ensure the client receives the necessary rehabilitation services. Consulting with a case manager about insurance coverage (Choice A) is important but not the priority at this stage. Counseling caregivers on respite care options (Choice B) and referring the client to a local stroke support group (Choice D) are also valuable but not as essential as ensuring the client has access to physical therapy for rehabilitation.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

4. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is to take levothyroxine with a full glass of water before breakfast. This helps improve absorption and prevents gastrointestinal side effects. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect as insomnia is not a common side effect of levothyroxine. Choice C is also incorrect as levothyroxine does not need to be refrigerated.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.

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