ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is planning care for a group of postoperative clients. Which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Administer IV pain medication to a client who reports pain as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
- B. Administer oxygen to a client who has an oxygen saturation of 91%
- C. Instruct a client who is 1 hr postoperative about coughing and deep breathing exercises
- D. Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride for a client who has just had abdominal surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority intervention is administering oxygen. Postoperatively, the client's oxygen saturation should be at or above 95%. Oxygen is essential for tissue perfusion and cellular oxygenation. While managing pain is important, oxygenation takes precedence. Instructing a client about coughing and deep breathing exercises is important for preventing respiratory complications but is not as urgent as addressing low oxygen saturation. Initiating an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride is a routine postoperative intervention for fluid balance but is not the priority when oxygen saturation is low.
2. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness
- B. Check deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
- C. Monitor for seizures
- D. Monitor for bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.
3. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with GERD?
- A. Avoid mint and pepper
- B. Consume liquids with meals
- C. Increase fluid intake with meals
- D. Eat large meals before bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary teaching for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and pepper. Mint and pepper can trigger reflux symptoms and increase gastric acid secretion, exacerbating GERD. Choices B and C are not recommended for patients with GERD as consuming liquids with meals and increasing fluid intake during meals can contribute to reflux by distending the stomach. Choice D, eating large meals before bed, can also worsen GERD symptoms by increasing pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting reflux.
4. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
- B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
- C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
- D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure throughout the breathing cycle
- B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
- C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
- D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.
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