ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What are the expected ECG findings in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. Elevated ST segments
- D. Wide QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are the classic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia primarily affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to T wave abnormalities. While prominent U waves are typically associated with hypokalemia as well, flattened T waves are the most specific and sensitive ECG abnormality seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia and are more indicative of other electrolyte imbalances or cardiac conditions.
2. What is the preferred treatment for a patient with unstable angina admitted with chest pain?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Establish IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Obtain cardiac enzymes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart, relieving chest pain, and preventing cardiac tissue damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) is important but not the preferred initial treatment for unstable angina with chest pain. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice D) are relevant assessments but do not address the immediate symptomatic relief needed for a patient with unstable angina and chest pain.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
- B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
- C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
- D. Take the second dose at bedtime
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.
4. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following referrals should the nurse plan to initiate?
- A. Respiratory therapy
- B. Hospice care
- C. Occupational therapy
- D. Dietary services
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dietary services. Referring the client to dietary services is essential for managing nutrition, including monitoring sodium, potassium, and protein intake, which are crucial aspects of managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Respiratory therapy (choice A) focuses on managing respiratory conditions, which are not directly related to CKD. Hospice care (choice B) is not appropriate for a new diagnosis of CKD as it is designed for end-of-life care. Occupational therapy (choice C) is beneficial for improving activities of daily living but is not the priority referral for a new CKD diagnosis.
5. What are the manifestations of osteomyelitis?
- A. Localized pain, swelling, erythema
- B. Elevated white blood cells
- C. Elevated calcium levels
- D. Low potassium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Osteomyelitis often manifests as localized pain, swelling, and erythema due to infection in the bone. These symptoms are characteristic of inflammation and infection in the bone tissue. Elevated white blood cells (Choice B) may be present as part of the body's immune response to the infection but are not specific manifestations of osteomyelitis. Elevated calcium levels (Choice C) and low potassium levels (Choice D) are not typically associated with osteomyelitis.
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