what should the nurse monitor for in a patient with compartment syndrome

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What should be monitored for in a patient with compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized redness and swelling
C. Fever and infection
D. Muscle weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome that indicate inadequate blood flow to the affected area. These symptoms are crucial to monitor as they signify a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling may be present but are not the primary indicators. Fever and infection are also not specific to compartment syndrome, and muscle weakness and fatigue are not typically prominent symptoms of this condition.

2. What are the expected signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
B. Severe headache and confusion
C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
D. Bradycardia and altered pupil response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, confusion, irritability. These are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) and require prompt intervention. Restlessness, confusion, and irritability are indicative of the brain's attempt to compensate for the rising pressure. Choice B is incorrect because severe headache alone is not specific to IICP and can be present in various conditions. Choice C is incorrect because elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP; instead, hypertension may be present in the compensatory stage. Choice D is incorrect as bradycardia and altered pupil response are signs of advanced IICP, not early signs. Monitoring and recognizing these early signs are crucial for timely intervention and preventing further complications.

3. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

A. Monitor for signs of infection
B. Monitor for anemia
C. Monitor for dehydration
D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has been taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

A. Weight loss
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Hypertension.' Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect. Prednisone can cause sodium retention and potassium loss, leading to increased blood pressure. Weight loss (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with prednisone use; instead, hyperglycemia is a common concern. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is also unlikely with prednisone use; instead, hypokalemia is a potential electrolyte imbalance.

5. What should be done when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
B. Replace the chest tube system
C. Clamp the chest tube
D. Continue to monitor the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate action is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This may resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Option B, replacing the chest tube system, is not the initial step to take and is considered more invasive. Clamping the chest tube (option C) can lead to complications and should not be done unless instructed by a healthcare provider. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (option D) without taking any corrective action may delay necessary interventions.