ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia and has an area of nonblanchable erythema over the ischium. Which intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Place the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion.
- B. Teach the client to shift his weight every 15 minutes while sitting.
- C. Turn and reposition the client every 3 hours.
- D. Assess pressure points every 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with nonblanchable erythema over the ischium is to teach the client to shift his weight every 15 minutes while sitting. This action helps relieve pressure on the affected area and prevents further skin breakdown. Placing the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion (Choice A) may not address the need for frequent weight shifts. Turning and repositioning the client every 3 hours (Choice C) is important for overall skin health but may not provide adequate relief for the specific area of nonblanchable erythema. Assessing pressure points every 24 hours (Choice D) is not frequent enough to prevent worsening of the skin condition in this case.
2. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient with a tracheostomy?
- A. Clean the tracheostomy site daily
- B. Change the tracheostomy ties daily
- C. Suction the tracheostomy regularly
- D. Provide humidified oxygen
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy regularly is crucial in caring for a patient with a tracheostomy as it helps keep the airway clear of secretions, preventing blockages and potential complications. Cleaning the tracheostomy site daily is important for hygiene but not as critical as regular suctioning. Changing the tracheostomy ties daily may not be necessary unless soiled or loose. Providing humidified oxygen may be part of the care plan but is not as directly related to maintaining the tracheostomy patency as suctioning.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?
- A. INR
- B. aPTT
- C. Platelet count
- D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
- B. Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL
- C. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
- D. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening gestational hypertension and should be reported to the provider. Sudden weight gain in a client with gestational hypertension can be a sign of fluid retention, which could worsen the hypertension and lead to complications like preeclampsia. The other options, blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg, fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL, and urinary output of 40 mL/hr, are within normal limits for a client with gestational hypertension and do not pose an immediate concern that requires reporting to the provider.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access