ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. If a nurse administers an incorrect dose of medication, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
- A. Time the medication was given
- B. The client's response to the medication
- C. The dose that was administered
- D. Reason for the error
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to document the time the medication was given. This is essential for understanding the sequence of events surrounding the medication error. While documenting the client's response to the medication (Choice B) is important for assessing any effects, the immediate concern should be to establish a clear timeline by documenting the time of administration. Recording the dose administered (Choice C) is also important, but in the context of understanding the incident, the time factor takes precedence. The reason for the error (Choice D) should be included in the incident report but may not be the first priority when documenting in the client's medical record.
2. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?
- A. Encourage group activities to promote socialization.
- B. Encourage the client to take frequent naps throughout the day.
- C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
- D. Promote physical activity during mealtimes to stimulate appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (Choice B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in a well-lit area to reduce wandering.
- B. Use physical restraints to prevent wandering.
- C. Ensure that the client wears an identification bracelet at all times.
- D. Keep the client's bed in the lowest position.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior is to ensure that the client wears an identification bracelet at all times. This helps prevent wandering and ensures the client's safety. Placing the client in a well-lit area may be beneficial for orientation but does not directly address wandering behavior. Using physical restraints is not recommended as it can lead to agitation and other complications. Keeping the client's bed in the lowest position is important for fall prevention but does not specifically address the issue of wandering behavior.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
- D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.
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