nurse administers an incorrect dose of medication which facts related to the incident report should the nurse document in the clients medical record
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. If a nurse administers an incorrect dose of medication, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the time the medication was given. This is essential for understanding the sequence of events surrounding the medication error. While documenting the client's response to the medication (Choice B) is important for assessing any effects, the immediate concern should be to establish a clear timeline by documenting the time of administration. Recording the dose administered (Choice C) is also important, but in the context of understanding the incident, the time factor takes precedence. The reason for the error (Choice D) should be included in the incident report but may not be the first priority when documenting in the client's medical record.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is A, left upper quadrant pain. In acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas commonly causes pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. This pain can be severe and radiate to the back. Periumbilical pain (choice B) is more indicative of acute appendicitis. Rebound tenderness (choice C) is associated with peritoneal inflammation, not specifically pancreatitis. Flank pain (choice D) is more characteristic of conditions involving the kidneys or ureters, such as renal colic.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A heart rate of 58/min is indicative of bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported immediately. While weight gain, respiratory rate, and temperature are important parameters to monitor, they are not as critical as identifying bradycardia in a client taking digoxin.

4. A client is being taught about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about PCA is that the client can adjust the amount of pain medication they receive by pushing on the keypad. This empowers the client to control their pain management effectively. Choice A is incorrect because PCA systems are programmed to prevent double dosing when the button is pressed multiple times in quick succession. Choice B is incorrect as continuous PCA infusion aims to maintain a steady plasma medication level. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary to push the button before physical activity to ensure maximum pain control; the client should use the PCA as needed for pain relief.

5. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

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