a nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about dietary modifications which of the following client statements indicates an understa
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ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. This medication promotes potassium excretion and helps lower serum potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia, which is indicated by a high potassium level. Sodium bicarbonate (choice A) is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate (choice C) and calcium carbonate (choice D) are used to manage hyperkalemia by stabilizing cell membranes but are not the initial treatment choice for lowering potassium levels.

3. A nurse is assessing a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Which symptom should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enuresis is a common symptom of urinary tract infections in school-age children. It is often a presenting symptom due to irritation of the bladder. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is more indicative of conditions like nephrotic syndrome or renal disorders. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is not typically associated with urinary tract infections. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of urinary tract infections but may occur due to other reasons like gastrointestinal infections.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the cause of late decelerations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, which results from inadequate blood flow to the placenta. This leads to reduced oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus during contractions. Choice A, fetal head compression, does not typically cause late decelerations but can result in variable decelerations. Choice C, umbilical cord compression, usually leads to variable decelerations. Choice D, fetal hypoxia, is a broad term and not the direct cause of late decelerations, which are specifically linked to uteroplacental insufficiency.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

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