ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. I will limit my protein intake to prevent further kidney damage.
- C. I will avoid consuming foods high in phosphorus.
- D. I will increase my intake of dairy products to support kidney function.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about managing protein intake. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should consume more plant-based protein.
- B. You should increase your intake of animal protein.
- C. You should increase your intake of high-protein foods.
- D. You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "You should limit your intake of high-protein foods." Clients with chronic kidney disease should reduce their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increasing intake of either plant-based or animal protein or high-protein foods can exacerbate kidney issues in individuals with chronic kidney disease.
3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient on furosemide for fluid balance?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for edema
- C. Monitor input and output
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring a patient's daily weight is crucial when assessing fluid balance in individuals prescribed furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt. Changes in weight can reflect fluid shifts, making daily weight monitoring a reliable indicator of fluid status. While checking for edema and monitoring input and output are essential aspects of fluid balance assessment, they may not provide as immediate and quantifiable information as daily weight measurements. Monitoring blood pressure is important in patients on furosemide due to its potential to affect blood pressure levels, but it is not as directly indicative of fluid balance as daily weight monitoring.
4. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
- B. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
- C. A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag.
- D. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client with low blood glucose levels needs immediate assessment to ensure stabilization. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening situations that require urgent assessment. Option B can be attended to after addressing the client with low blood glucose levels. Option C can be managed based on the infusion rate and the client's condition. Option D, although important, can be assessed after ensuring the client with low blood glucose levels is stable.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a nasogastric tube for enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent aspiration?
- A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding.
- B. Check for gastric residuals every 4 hours.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
- D. Place the client in the left lateral position during feedings.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and subsequent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Flushing the tube with water before feedings (Choice A) is not necessary for preventing aspiration. Checking for gastric residuals (Choice B) helps monitor feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration. Placing the client in the left lateral position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for preventing aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube.
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