a nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about dietary modifications which of the following client statements indicates an understa
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.

2. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.

3. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL.' A low serum calcium level indicates hypocalcemia, which is a potential complication of thyroidectomy that can lead to life-threatening consequences, such as tetany or laryngospasm. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the provider for timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments following a thyroidectomy but are not as critical as detecting and addressing hypocalcemia, which can have serious implications for the client's health.

5. A client at 14 weeks gestation reports feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to use open-ended questions that allow the client to explore and express their feelings. Choice A encourages the client to describe their feelings, fostering open communication and providing an opportunity for the client to express themselves freely. Choices B and C do not directly address the client's feelings and may not promote open communication. Choice D focuses on the timing of the feelings rather than exploring the feelings themselves, making it a less therapeutic response.

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